Medical Terminology University

Chapter 17: Sense Organs - The Eye and the Ear Examination

60 questions

60 min

Answer key

Exam info

Subject: Medical Terminology
Exam type: University
Questions: 60
Duration: 60 min
Answers: ✓ With explanations

Questions (60)

Q 1.
The primary function of the cornea is to:
- A.
  Produce aqueous humor
- B.
  Bend (refract) light rays so they focus properly on the retina
- C.
  Transmit nerve impulses to the brain
- D.
  Control the size of the pupil
Q 2.
The choroid is described as the:
- A.
  Tough, white outer coat of the eyeball
- B.
  Transparent, biconvex body behind the pupil
- C.
  Middle, vascular layer of the eye between the retina and sclera
- D.
  Light-sensitive nerve cell layer of the eye
Q 3.
Which structure of the eye contains the photoreceptor cells (rods and cones)?
- A.
  Choroid
- B.
  Iris
- C.
  Retina
- D.
  Sclera
Q 4.
The function of the ciliary body includes:
- A.
  Producing vitreous humor
- B.
  Refracting light rays
- C.
  Controlling the shape of the lens and secreting aqueous humor
- D.
  Transmitting nerve impulses to the brain
Q 5.
The colored portion of the eye that controls the size of the pupil is the:
- A.
  Cornea
- B.
  Lens
- C.
  Iris
- D.
  Choroid
Q 6.
Vitreous humor is located:
- A.
  In front of the lens in the anterior chamber
- B.
  Behind the lens in the vitreous chamber
- C.
  Within the optic nerve
- D.
  Within the ciliary body
Q 7.
The blind spot of the eye is also known as the:
- A.
  Macula
- B.
  Fovea centralis
- C.
  Optic disc
- D.
  Ciliary body
Q 8.
The fovea centralis is composed primarily of:
- A.
  Rods
- B.
  Cones
- C.
  Nerve fibers
- D.
  Blood vessels
Q 9.
The point at which optic nerve fibers cross in the brain is called the:
- A.
  Optic disc
- B.
  Optic chiasm
- C.
  Optic tract
- D.
  Thalamus
Q 10.
The posterior, inner part of the eye, visualized with an ophthalmoscope, is the:
- A.
  Macula
- B.
  Fundus
- C.
  Choroid
- D.
  Sclera
Q 11.
The combining form "blephar/o" refers to the:
- A.
  Tear duct
- B.
  Eyelid
- C.
  Lens
- D.
  Iris
Q 12.
The combining form "dacry/o" refers to:
- A.
  Tears, tear duct
- B.
  Cornea
- C.
  Pupil
- D.
  Retina
Q 13.
The combining form "kerat/o" means:
- A.
  Pupil
- B.
  Lens
- C.
  Cornea
- D.
  Retina
Q 14.
The combining forms "phac/o" and "phak/o" refer to the:
- A.
  Lens of the eye
- B.
  Iris
- C.
  Pupil
- D.
  Eyelid
Q 15.
The combining form "mydr/o" means:
- A.
  Smaller, less
- B.
  Widen, enlarge
- C.
  Hard
- D.
  Dull, dim
Q 16.
The combining form "mi/o" means:
- A.
  Larger
- B.
  Widen
- C.
  Smaller, less
- D.
  Equal
Q 17.
The combining form "ambly/o" means:
- A.
  Double
- B.
  Gray
- C.
  Dull, dim
- D.
  Dry
Q 18.
The combining form "scot/o" means:
- A.
  Light
- B.
  Darkness
- C.
  Vision
- D.
  Old age
Q 19.
The combining form "presby/o" means:
- A.
  Old age
- B.
  Near
- C.
  Far
- D.
  Both
Q 20.
The suffix "-tropia" means:
- A.
  Vision
- B.
  To turn
- C.
  Hearing
- D.
  Light
Q 21.
Astigmatism is caused by:
- A.
  An abnormally short eyeball
- B.
  An abnormally long eyeball
- C.
  Defective curvature of the cornea or lens
- D.
  Clouding of the lens
Q 22.
Hyperopia (farsightedness) results when:
- A.
  The eyeball is too long
- B.
  The eyeball is too short or the refractive power of the lens is too weak
- C.
  Light focuses in front of the retina
- D.
  The lens becomes opaque
Q 23.
Myopia (nearsightedness) is corrected with:
- A.
  Convex lenses
- B.
  Concave lenses
- C.
  Cylindrical lenses
- D.
  Bifocal lenses
Q 24.
Hyperopia is corrected with:
- A.
  Concave lenses
- B.
  Convex lenses
- C.
  Cylindrical lenses
- D.
  Reading glasses only
Q 25.
Presbyopia is best described as:
- A.
  Nearsightedness
- B.
  Farsightedness
- C.
  Impairment of vision as a result of old age
- D.
  Double vision
Q 26.
A cataract is a condition involving:
- A.
  Increased intraocular pressure
- B.
  Clouding of the lens, causing decreased vision
- C.
  Detachment of the retina
- D.
  Bulging of the eye
Q 27.
Glaucoma is characterized by:
- A.
  Clouding of the lens
- B.
  Increased intraocular pressure resulting in optic nerve damage
- C.
  Infection of the conjunctiva
- D.
  Loss of peripheral vision only at night
Q 28.
A chalazion is:
- A.
  A purulent infection of a sebaceous gland
- B.
  A small, hard, cystic mass on the eyelid
- C.
  Inflammation of the tear duct
- D.
  Drooping of the eyelid
Q 29.
Macular degeneration primarily affects:
- A.
  Peripheral vision
- B.
  Central vision
- C.
  Color vision only
- D.
  Night vision only
Q 30.
Strabismus is a condition involving:
- A.
  Clouding of the lens
- B.
  Increased intraocular pressure
- C.
  Abnormal deviation of the eye
- D.
  Loss of vision in half the visual field
Q 31.
Amblyopia is commonly known as:
- A.
  Cross-eyed
- B.
  Lazy eye
- C.
  Wall-eye
- D.
  Double vision
Q 32.
Retinal detachment occurs when:
- A.
  The cornea becomes cloudy
- B.
  Two layers of the retina separate from each other
- C.
  The optic nerve is damaged
- D.
  Pressure builds in the anterior chamber
Q 33.
Diabetic retinopathy is a disease of the retina caused by:
- A.
  High blood pressure
- B.
  Diabetes mellitus
- C.
  Aging
- D.
  Trauma
Q 34.
A hordeolum (stye) is:
- A.
  A chronic granuloma of the eyelid
- B.
  A localized purulent infection of a sebaceous gland in the eyelid
- C.
  Outward sagging of the eyelid
- D.
  Inward turning of the eyelid
Q 35.
Hemianopsia is defined as:
- A.
  Double vision
- B.
  Absence of vision in half of the visual field
- C.
  Decreased visual acuity in one eye
- D.
  Loss of peripheral vision only
Q 36.
Tonometry is used to measure:
- A.
  Visual acuity
- B.
  Intraocular pressure
- C.
  Color vision
- D.
  Peripheral vision
Q 37.
Phacoemulsification is a technique used for:
- A.
  Removing a cataract
- B.
  Repairing a detached retina
- C.
  Treating glaucoma
- D.
  Performing a corneal transplant
Q 38.
LASIK is an acronym for:
- A.
  Laser Application for Sight Improvement and Correction
- B.
  Laser in situ keratomileusis
- C.
  Light Amplification Stimulated by Internal Kinetic
- D.
  Laser Assisted Surgery In Keratoconus
Q 39.
Keratoplasty refers to:
- A.
  Surgical repair of the cornea
- B.
  Removal of vitreous humor
- C.
  Removal of the entire eyeball
- D.
  Laser treatment of the retina
Q 40.
Fluorescein angiography involves:
- A.
  Using ultrasound to examine the eye
- B.
  Injecting dye and taking photographs of the retina through dilated pupils
- C.
  Measuring pressure in the eye
- D.
  Visual examination of the eye
Q 41.
A scleral buckle is used to treat:
- A.
  Cataracts
- B.
  Glaucoma
- C.
  Retinal detachment
- D.
  Macular degeneration
Q 42.
Enucleation is the term for:
- A.
  Surgical repair of the cornea
- B.
  Removal of the entire eyeball
- C.
  Removal of cataract
- D.
  Suture of silicone band to sclera
Q 43.
The abbreviation OCT stands for:
- A.
  Ocular Clarity Test
- B.
  Optical Coherence Tomography
- C.
  Optic Canal Tracing
- D.
  Orbital Computed Test
Q 44.
The Snellen chart is used to test:
- A.
  Color vision
- B.
  Visual acuity
- C.
  Peripheral vision
- D.
  Intraocular pressure
Q 45.
Vitrectomy is the term for:
- A.
  Removal of vitreous humor
- B.
  Removal of the lens
- C.
  Removal of the cornea
- D.
  Removal of the iris
Q 46.
The abbreviation OD refers to:
- A.
  Both eyes
- B.
  Right eye (oculus dexter)
- C.
  Left eye (oculus sinister)
- D.
  Ocular disease
Q 47.
The abbreviation OS refers to:
- A.
  Both eyes
- B.
  Right eye
- C.
  Left eye (oculus sinister)
- D.
  Eye socket
Q 48.
The abbreviation OU means:
- A.
  Right eye
- B.
  Left eye
- C.
  Both eyes (oculus uterque)
- D.
  Either eye
Q 49.
The abbreviation IOP stands for:
- A.
  Intraorbital pressure
- B.
  Intraocular pressure
- C.
  Inner ocular pain
- D.
  Inner optic position
Q 50.
The abbreviation PERRLA refers to:
- A.
  Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation
- B.
  Peripheral eye response, reaction, light adaptation
- C.
  Pressure equal in retina, refraction limited area
- D.
  Pupils enlarged, rapid, reactive to light assessment
Q 51.
The three ossicles of the middle ear, in the order sound travels through them, are:
- A.
  Incus, malleus, stapes
- B.
  Stapes, incus, malleus
- C.
  Malleus, incus, stapes
- D.
  Malleus, stapes, incus
Q 52.
The snail shell-shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the:
- A.
  Vestibule
- B.
  Cochlea
- C.
  Semicircular canals
- D.
  Tympanic membrane
Q 53.
The auditory (eustachian) tube connects the middle ear to the:
- A.
  Brain
- B.
  Pharynx
- C.
  Cochlea
- D.
  Outer ear
Q 54.
The organ of Corti is found in the:
- A.
  Vestibule
- B.
  Semicircular canals
- C.
  Cochlea
- D.
  Tympanic membrane
Q 55.
Cerumen is best described as:
- A.
  Fluid in the inner ear
- B.
  A yellowish brown, waxy substance secreted in the external auditory canal
- C.
  A membrane in the middle ear
- D.
  A bone in the middle ear
Q 56.
The combining form "ot/o" means:
- A.
  Eye
- B.
  Ear
- C.
  Hearing
- D.
  Sound
Q 57.
Otosclerosis is best described as:
- A.
  Softening of the bony tissue of the middle ear
- B.
  Hardening of the bony tissue of the middle ear
- C.
  Inflammation of the middle ear
- D.
  Tumor of the acoustic nerve
Q 58.
Tinnitus is best described as:
- A.
  Dizziness
- B.
  A sensation of noises in the ears without an external source
- C.
  Ear pain
- D.
  Hearing loss
Q 59.
Meniere disease affects the:
- A.
  Outer ear
- B.
  Middle ear
- C.
  Labyrinth of the inner ear
- D.
  Tympanic membrane
Q 60.
Myringotomy is:
- A.
  Removal of the eardrum
- B.
  Incision of the eardrum
- C.
  Repair of the eardrum
- D.
  Examination of the eardrum

Answers and explanations are in mode.