Chapter 2 Exam: Development of Management Perspectives

100 questions
180 min
Answer key

Exam info

Subject
Management
Exam type
University
Questions
100
Duration
180 min
Year
2026
Answers
✓ With explanations

Questions (100)

  1. Q 1.

    A manager observes that changing social values are affecting employee expectations. Which approach best reflects the environmental perspective described in the chapter?

    • A.

      Trace how the values of the wider society influence relationships at work.

    • B.

      Consider only the organization’s internal accounting records.

    • C.

      Assume that social conditions remain stable and require no managerial response.

    • D.

      Focus exclusively on the organization’s largest competitor.

  2. Q 2.

    Young employees place greater value on flexible schedules and remote work than on high salary. Which environmental force does this scenario primarily illustrate?

    • A.

      Social forces

    • B.

      Political forces

    • C.

      Economic forces

    • D.

      Technological forces

  3. Q 3.

    The government raises the legally required minimum wage for service-sector employees. Which force is exerting the strongest influence?

    • A.

      Economic forces

    • B.

      Political and legal forces

    • C.

      Social forces

    • D.

      Cultural forces

  4. Q 4.

    During an economic recession, rising unemployment leads consumers to reduce purchases of luxury goods. Which environmental force is represented?

    • A.

      Social forces

    • B.

      Economic forces

    • C.

      Political forces

    • D.

      Organizational forces

  5. Q 5.

    Consumers begin favoring companies that use environmentally friendly, plastic-free packaging. What does this change mainly represent?

    • A.

      A change in social values

    • B.

      A change in the legal minimum wage

    • C.

      A shortage of production resources

    • D.

      A change in the hierarchical structure of firms

  6. Q 6.

    Factories must install costly treatment systems because new environmental regulations take effect. Which classification is most appropriate?

    • A.

      Social force

    • B.

      Political and legal force

    • C.

      Economic force

    • D.

      Technological force

  7. Q 7.

    A manufacturer faces a sharp increase in input prices and cannot obtain enough imported components. Which environmental issue must managers address?

    • A.

      The production and distribution of economic resources

    • B.

      Employees’ preferred communication styles

    • C.

      Community standards of etiquette

    • D.

      The legal authority of senior managers

  8. Q 8.

    Which statement best summarizes the classical perspective of management?

    • A.

      It emphasizes rational behavior, structured work, and efficiency.

    • B.

      It argues that informal relationships are more important than formal structure.

    • C.

      It treats employee creativity as the only reliable source of productivity.

    • D.

      It rejects the idea that management can be studied systematically.

  9. Q 9.

    What core assumption about people is generally associated with the classical management perspective?

    • A.

      People act rationally and can be guided by clear procedures.

    • B.

      People are motivated primarily by social acceptance.

    • C.

      People naturally reject all responsibility.

    • D.

      People cannot learn improved methods.

  10. Q 10.

    During approximately what broad historical period did the classical perspective develop and remain influential?

    • A.

      From the nineteenth century into the late twentieth century

    • B.

      Only during the eighteenth century

    • C.

      Only after the beginning of the twenty-first century

    • D.

      Only after digital platforms became widespread

  11. Q 11.

    Which movement is not one of the major streams within the classical management perspective?

    • A.

      Scientific management

    • B.

      Administrative management

    • C.

      Bureaucratic organization theory

    • D.

      The humanistic perspective

  12. Q 12.

    What organizational change did the classical perspective help accelerate?

    • A.

      The decline of professional management roles

    • B.

      The growth of specialized managerial positions

    • C.

      The elimination of scientific work-study methods

    • D.

      The replacement of organizations with informal social groups

  13. Q 13.

    In the historical tension described in the chapter, which side of management thinking is most strongly represented by the classical perspective?

    • A.

      The humanity of production

    • B.

      The things of production

    • C.

      Employee self-actualization

    • D.

      Informal group formation

  14. Q 14.

    Which comparison between the classical and humanistic perspectives is accurate?

    • A.

      Classical management emphasizes structured methods, while humanistic management emphasizes needs and motivation.

    • B.

      Both perspectives reject formal organization.

    • C.

      Classical management focuses on creativity, while humanistic management focuses only on output.

    • D.

      Humanistic management assumes people are machines that require recalibration.

  15. Q 15.

    Who is identified as the father of scientific management?

    • A.

      Frederick Winslow Taylor

    • B.

      Henri Fayol

    • C.

      Max Weber

    • D.

      Elton Mayo

  16. Q 16.

    At the Bethlehem Steel example, Taylor improved productivity primarily by changing which of the following?

    • A.

      Worker movements, tools, and the sequence of tasks

    • B.

      Workers’ personal values outside the workplace

    • C.

      The company’s ownership structure

    • D.

      The number of management layers

  17. Q 17.

    A production manager documents the most efficient sequence for assembling a component. Which scientific-management practice is being used?

    • A.

      Developing a standard method for the job

    • B.

      Encouraging workers to design a different method each day

    • C.

      Removing all standards to encourage creativity

    • D.

      Allowing each manager to use unrelated procedures

  18. Q 18.

    Before assigning a worker to a specialized operation, a factory tests the worker’s ability to perform it. What scientific-management principle is being applied?

    • A.

      Selection for appropriate ability

    • B.

      Centralization of all rewards

    • C.

      Creation of an informal organization

    • D.

      Development of a scalar chain

  19. Q 19.

    A supervisor schedules materials in advance and removes interruptions so workers can complete a task continuously. Which scientific-management practice is being applied?

    • A.

      Planning work and eliminating interruptions

    • B.

      Replacing all supervision with worker autonomy

    • C.

      Using contingent leadership

    • D.

      Prioritizing employee self-actualization

  20. Q 20.

    A company pays workers an additional amount when they meet an established output standard. What scientific-management contribution is demonstrated?

    • A.

      The importance of performance-based compensation

    • B.

      The importance of informal supervision

    • C.

      The unity of command

    • D.

      The acceptance of authority

  21. Q 21.

    Which contribution is correctly matched with its contributor to scientific management?

    • A.

      Gantt developed a scheduling chart, and Gilbreth added a human component to work study.

    • B.

      Fayol developed the Gantt chart, and Weber introduced worker motivation.

    • C.

      Taylor introduced bureaucracy, and Mayo developed administrative functions.

    • D.

      Barnard created scientific management, and Senge developed the Gantt chart.

  22. Q 22.

    Which criticism is commonly directed at Taylor’s scientific-management approach?

    • A.

      It placed too much emphasis on output and insufficient attention on the social context of work.

    • B.

      It gave too much attention to selecting and training workers.

    • C.

      It rejected the use of carefully specified work standards.

    • D.

      It denied the importance of performance incentives.

  23. Q 23.

    Which theorist introduced the formal theory of bureaucratic organizations?

    • A.

      Max Weber

    • B.

      Frederick Taylor

    • C.

      Douglas McGregor

    • D.

      W. Edwards Deming

  24. Q 24.

    Why did Weber favor rational authority over authority based primarily on family connections?

    • A.

      It was expected to be more efficient and adaptable to change.

    • B.

      It required employees to ignore formal qualifications.

    • C.

      It removed the need for hierarchy and procedures.

    • D.

      It made promotion dependent on personal relationships.

  25. Q 25.

    A large organization chooses managers primarily because they have the relevant technical qualifications and demonstrated competence. Which Weberian principle is being followed?

    • A.

      Selection based on competence

    • B.

      Selection based on family status

    • C.

      Promotion based on personal loyalty

    • D.

      Selection by informal group consensus

  26. Q 26.

    Which description best defines bureaucracy as presented in the chapter?

    • A.

      A complex organization with multiple layers and formal procedures

    • B.

      A small family group whose members make decisions informally

    • C.

      A team relying entirely on informal networks

    • D.

      A flat organization with no written rules

  27. Q 27.

    Why has bureaucracy often acquired a negative meaning in everyday usage?

    • A.

      Because its layers and procedures can produce excessive red tape.

    • B.

      Because it normally has no formal hierarchy.

    • C.

      Because it selects managers without regard to competence.

    • D.

      Because it prevents organizations from having specialized roles.

  28. Q 28.

    Which comparison of the three major classical theories is accurate?

    • A.

      Taylor focused on production tasks, Fayol on managerial functions, and Weber on organizational structure.

    • B.

      Taylor focused on bureaucracy, Fayol on worker motivation, and Weber on work measurement.

    • C.

      Taylor focused on social groups, Fayol on quality, and Weber on scientific measurement.

    • D.

      Taylor, Fayol, and Weber all focused exclusively on employee self-actualization.

  29. Q 29.

    Which set contains the five functions of management identified by Henri Fayol?

    • A.

      Planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling

    • B.

      Recruiting, training, financing, networking, and rewarding

    • C.

      Planning, staffing, financing, innovating, and socializing

    • D.

      Motivating, delegating, benchmarking, outsourcing, and automating

  30. Q 30.

    A company divides a large project into specialized tasks and assigns each task to employees with the appropriate skills. Which Fayol principle is being applied?

    • A.

      Division of work

    • B.

      Esprit de corps

    • C.

      Unity of command

    • D.

      Benchmarking

  31. Q 31.

    A manager receives both the duty and the authority to approve a project budget. Which Fayol principle is being followed?

    • A.

      Authority and responsibility

    • B.

      Scalar chain

    • C.

      Unity of direction

    • D.

      Continuity

  32. Q 32.

    An employee receives conflicting orders from two different supervisors concerning the same task. Which Fayol principle has been violated?

    • A.

      Unity of command

    • B.

      Remuneration

    • C.

      Equity

    • D.

      Centralization

  33. Q 33.

    An organization creates a clearly defined chain of authority extending from senior management to operational employees. Which principle does this structure represent?

    • A.

      Scalar chain

    • B.

      Unity of direction

    • C.

      Order

    • D.

      Benchmarking

  34. Q 34.

    Which pair of Fayol principles is correctly matched with its meaning?

    • A.

      Unity of direction and subordinate individual interest

    • B.

      Unity of command and scalar chain

    • C.

      Division of work and authority and responsibility

    • D.

      Remuneration and centralization

  35. Q 35.

    A company recognizes excellent performance with a salary bonus and public praise. Which principle allows both forms of reward?

    • A.

      Remuneration

    • B.

      Discipline

    • C.

      Stability

    • D.

      Order

  36. Q 36.

    A company’s highest-level managers make all major strategic decisions while lower levels mainly carry them out. Which principle is being emphasized?

    • A.

      Centralization

    • B.

      Division of work

    • C.

      Unity of command

    • D.

      Initiative

  37. Q 37.

    Which pair of principles is correctly identified?

    • A.

      Order and discipline

    • B.

      Equity and stability

    • C.

      Initiative and esprit de corps

    • D.

      Division of work and remuneration

  38. Q 38.

    Which pair of principles is correctly identified?

    • A.

      Equity and stability

    • B.

      Order and discipline

    • C.

      Centralization and scalar chain

    • D.

      Remuneration and initiative

  39. Q 39.

    Which pair of principles best supports employee creativity, trust, and mutual understanding?

    • A.

      Order and discipline

    • B.

      Equity and stability

    • C.

      Initiative and esprit de corps

    • D.

      Centralization and discipline

  40. Q 40.

    What historical development encouraged the emergence of the management science perspective?

    • A.

      The changing and dynamic environment following World War II

    • B.

      The decline of industrial production

    • C.

      The replacement of organizations by family structures

    • D.

      The disappearance of quantitative decision problems

  41. Q 41.

    Which feature most clearly distinguishes the management science perspective from earlier classical approaches?

    • A.

      Its extensive use of mathematics, statistics, and quantitative techniques

    • B.

      Its complete rejection of formal analysis

    • C.

      Its reliance exclusively on informal group relationships

    • D.

      Its focus only on workers’ psychological needs

  42. Q 42.

    According to the management science perspective, how is management primarily viewed?

    • A.

      A purely political process based on personal alliances

    • B.

      A logical process that can be analyzed and optimized

    • C.

      An entirely artistic activity with no measurable patterns

    • D.

      A social movement whose effectiveness cannot be measured

  43. Q 43.

    Which areas are identified as part of the management science perspective?

    • A.

      Operations research, operations management, and management information systems

    • B.

      Psychotherapy, folklore, political campaigns, and literature

    • C.

      Bureaucratic ritual, family ownership, and personal loyalty

    • D.

      Maslow’s needs, Hawthorne experiments, and esprit de corps

  44. Q 44.

    A company uses a mathematical model to determine the inventory level that minimizes ordering and storage costs. Which tool is being used?

    • A.

      Operations research

    • B.

      The scalar chain

    • C.

      Human relations

    • D.

      Benchmarking

  45. Q 45.

    Who is identified in the material as leading the increased study of management within the management science era?

    • A.

      Peter Ferdinand Drucker

    • B.

      Max Weber

    • C.

      Henry Gantt

    • D.

      Lillian Gilbreth

  46. Q 46.

    Which statement best describes the central concern of the humanistic perspective?

    • A.

      Understanding needs, attitudes, motivation, and social interaction at work

    • B.

      Maximizing production while ignoring employee characteristics

    • C.

      Using statistical models to minimize operating costs

    • D.

      Creating the longest possible hierarchy of authority

  47. Q 47.

    Which person is called the Mother of Modern Management in the chapter?

    • A.

      Mary Parker Follett

    • B.

      Chester Barnard

    • C.

      Abraham Maslow

    • D.

      Peter Senge

  48. Q 48.

    Which statement reflects Chester Barnard’s position on scientific management?

    • A.

      Scientific techniques should replace all consideration of people.

    • B.

      People are more important than technique alone.

    • C.

      Formal organizations should eliminate all informal relationships.

    • D.

      Employees must always accept the authority assigned to them.

  49. Q 49.

    Which topics are explicitly associated with Chester Barnard’s management thought?

    • A.

      Ethics, power, and employee motivation

    • B.

      Only freight shipment and inventory velocity

    • C.

      Only workplace safety and sanitation

    • D.

      Only financial accounting rules

  50. Q 50.

    Employees form social cliques and informal networks that are not shown in the organization chart. What are these groups called in Barnard’s approach?

    • A.

      The informal organization

    • B.

      The scalar chain

    • C.

      The division of labor

    • D.

      A management information system

  51. Q 51.

    Why can informal information relationships be valuable to an organization?

    • A.

      They help people exchange information and cooperate across formal boundaries.

    • B.

      They eliminate the need for formal communication.

    • C.

      They guarantee that every employee follows the same method.

    • D.

      They remove all conflict from the organization.

  52. Q 52.

    According to Barnard’s view of authority, how should managers understand employee acceptance of authority?

    • A.

      Employees are passive and must always obey.

    • B.

      Authority is valid only when it comes from a family connection.

    • C.

      Employees have free will and may accept or reject imposed authority.

    • D.

      Authority has the same meaning in every situation.

  53. Q 53.

    Which researchers are most closely associated with the Hawthorne studies?

    • A.

      Elton Mayo and Fritz Roethlisberger

    • B.

      Henri Fayol and Max Weber

    • C.

      Peter Drucker and Peter Senge

    • D.

      W. Edwards Deming and Douglas McGregor

  54. Q 54.

    How does the human-relations movement differ from a purely authoritarian approach to control?

    • A.

      It treats control as something arising partly from the individual worker rather than only from authority.

    • B.

      It assumes that close command is always the main source of productivity.

    • C.

      It rejects the effect of management treatment on output.

    • D.

      It considers group relationships irrelevant to satisfaction.

  55. Q 55.

    Which description accurately identifies the participants and task in the relay assembly test?

    • A.

      Six women who assembled telephone relays

    • B.

      Ten male engineers who designed railway bridges

    • C.

      A group of accountants comparing annual budgets

    • D.

      Two executives testing advertising campaigns

  56. Q 56.

    Why did the researchers find the relay assembly test significant?

    • A.

      Productivity stayed high even after some favorable changes were removed.

    • B.

      Workers produced nothing when supervision was withdrawn.

    • C.

      All output came from mechanical automation.

    • D.

      Workers rejected all financial incentives.

  57. Q 57.

    Which factors did Mayo and his colleagues identify as important drivers of improved productivity?

    • A.

      A sense of importance, cohesive groups, informal supervision, and attention to workers

    • B.

      Only the physical design of machines

    • C.

      Only longer working hours

    • D.

      Only larger monetary payments

  58. Q 58.

    What managerial lesson follows most directly from the Hawthorne findings?

    • A.

      Positive treatment and attention to employees can improve output and satisfaction.

    • B.

      Money is unimportant under every circumstance.

    • C.

      Employees should never be supervised.

    • D.

      Group relationships should be eliminated.

  59. Q 59.

    What is a central purpose of the human resources perspective?

    • A.

      To reduce demeaning work and help employees use their full potential

    • B.

      To redesign employees primarily as interchangeable machines

    • C.

      To eliminate employee development

    • D.

      To focus exclusively on the physical movement of products

  60. Q 60.

    Which major theory is associated with Abraham Maslow?

    • A.

      The hierarchy of needs

    • B.

      Theory of rational authority

    • C.

      Benchmarking

    • D.

      Contingency leadership

  61. Q 61.

    An employee’s physiological and safety needs are reasonably satisfied, and the employee now seeks recognition and respect. Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy is most directly involved?

    • A.

      Esteem needs

    • B.

      Physiological needs

    • C.

      Safety needs

    • D.

      Self-actualization

  62. Q 62.

    Which statement best represents McGregor’s Theory X?

    • A.

      Most people dislike work and require direction, control, or threats to perform adequately.

    • B.

      Most people naturally seek responsibility when conditions are suitable.

    • C.

      Employees are generally self-directing when committed to organizational goals.

    • D.

      Creativity is widely distributed throughout the population.

  63. Q 63.

    Which statement best represents McGregor’s Theory Y?

    • A.

      People naturally prefer external control and avoid responsibility.

    • B.

      People can exercise self-direction when committed to organizational objectives.

    • C.

      Employees require punishment before making an adequate effort.

    • D.

      Most people want security above all other considerations.

  64. Q 64.

    A supervisor closely monitors every action and threatens punishment whenever standards are not met. Which theory best describes the supervisor’s assumptions?

    • A.

      Theory Y

    • B.

      Theory X

    • C.

      Contingency theory

    • D.

      Total quality management

  65. Q 65.

    A team sets challenging goals, understands their importance, and decides how to complete the work without constant managerial direction. Which theory is most consistent with this behavior?

    • A.

      Theory Y

    • B.

      Theory X

    • C.

      Scientific management

    • D.

      Bureaucratic management

  66. Q 66.

    Under suitable conditions, employees increasingly volunteer for difficult assignments and propose creative solutions. Which Theory Y assumptions are reflected?

    • A.

      Employees seek responsibility and creativity is widely distributed

    • B.

      Employees avoid responsibility and creativity belongs only to a small group

    • C.

      Employees require close direction and prefer security

    • D.

      External punishment is the only effective motivator

  67. Q 67.

    Which comparison between Theory X and Theory Y is accurate?

    • A.

      Theory X emphasizes avoidance and security, while Theory Y emphasizes commitment and responsibility.

    • B.

      Theory X assumes self-direction, while Theory Y assumes punishment is always necessary.

    • C.

      Theory X assumes creativity is widely distributed, while Theory Y assumes it is rare.

    • D.

      Both theories assume that employees inherently dislike work.

  68. Q 68.

    A manager delegates meaningful responsibility, explains the purpose of the work, and allows employees to organize their own approach. Which assumptions underlie this style?

    • A.

      Theory Y

    • B.

      Theory X

    • C.

      Bureaucratic red tape

    • D.

      Pure centralization

  69. Q 69.

    Which disciplines contribute scientific methods to the behavioral sciences approach?

    • A.

      Sociology, psychology, anthropology, and economics

    • B.

      Only civil engineering

    • C.

      Only accounting and taxation

    • D.

      Only medieval philosophy

  70. Q 70.

    What is the main focus of the behavioral sciences approach to management?

    • A.

      Scientific study of human behavior, interaction, motivation, needs, and values

    • B.

      Only the mechanical design of production equipment

    • C.

      Only the legal ownership of organizations

    • D.

      Only the chronological order of management theories

  71. Q 71.

    Which development is associated with applying behavioral science to organizational health?

    • A.

      Organizational development

    • B.

      Scientific management

    • C.

      Bureaucratic red tape

    • D.

      Outsourcing

  72. Q 72.

    Why are research methods important in the behavioral sciences approach?

    • A.

      They help explain and predict why people behave as they do.

    • B.

      They prove that all employees react identically.

    • C.

      They remove the need for ethical consideration.

    • D.

      They replace all managerial judgment with formulas.

  73. Q 73.

    Which comparison among the three humanistic branches is accurate?

    • A.

      Human relations studies social relationships, human resources develops abilities, and behavioral sciences studies behavior scientifically.

    • B.

      Human relations focuses on inventory, human resources focuses on hierarchy, and behavioral science focuses only on legal ownership.

    • C.

      All three branches use exactly the same research method and have identical main questions.

    • D.

      Human relations rejects groups, while human resources rejects participation.

  74. Q 74.

    Which statement best defines a system in the systems view of organizations?

    • A.

      A set of interrelated parts functioning as a whole to achieve a common purpose

    • B.

      A collection of unrelated departments with separate purposes

    • C.

      A single supervisor’s personal preferences

    • D.

      A permanent structure that cannot receive feedback

  75. Q 75.

    What does system thinking require a manager to see?

    • A.

      Only the separate parts of a situation

    • B.

      Both the distinct elements and their complex, changing interactions

    • C.

      Only the final output and ignore all inputs

    • D.

      Only individual employees and ignore the organization

  76. Q 76.

    Which statement correctly describes a subsystem?

    • A.

      An independent part with no connection to the rest of the organization

    • B.

      A part that cooperates with and depends on other parts of the system

    • C.

      A source of random noise outside the organization

    • D.

      A rule that applies only to senior managers

  77. Q 77.

    In the systems view, what does synergy mean?

    • A.

      Synchronization of the parts of a system

    • B.

      Complete separation of every department

    • C.

      The removal of feedback from decision-makers

    • D.

      The use of only monetary rewards

  78. Q 78.

    Which sequence best represents a systems approach to organizational performance?

    • A.

      Inputs, processes, outputs, and feedback

    • B.

      Outputs, inputs, feedback, and random interruptions

    • C.

      Feedback, outputs, hierarchy, and payroll

    • D.

      Authority, red tape, discipline, and centralization

  79. Q 79.

    A change in customer demand affects production, inventory, and sales. A manager coordinates all three rather than optimizing one in isolation. Which perspective is being used?

    • A.

      Systems theory

    • B.

      Bureaucratic red tape

    • C.

      Scientific management

    • D.

      Centralization

  80. Q 80.

    What is the central claim of the contingency view of management?

    • A.

      Organizational problems should be solved with one universal method.

    • B.

      Successful management depends on the fit between the approach and the situation.

    • C.

      Formal structures are always superior to informal relationships.

    • D.

      Quality should be managed without considering customers.

  81. Q 81.

    Which phrase best summarizes the contingency principle of no one best way?

    • A.

      Management methods should be selected according to the circumstances.

    • B.

      Every organization should copy the structure of its largest competitor.

    • C.

      Managers should ignore environmental differences.

    • D.

      All teams require identical leadership styles.

  82. Q 82.

    Which variables are identified as relevant to the contingency view?

    • A.

      Environment, technology, people, and task

    • B.

      Only the organization’s letterhead

    • C.

      Only the age of the founder

    • D.

      Only historical management theories

  83. Q 83.

    What is the manager’s role under the contingency view?

    • A.

      Apply a fixed method regardless of circumstances

    • B.

      Adapt the management approach to the specific situation

    • C.

      Avoid making any management decision

    • D.

      Use only information from the organization’s earliest history

  84. Q 84.

    A highly experienced emergency team and a newly formed design team receive different leadership styles. Which perspective best explains this decision?

    • A.

      Contingency view

    • B.

      Scientific management

    • C.

      Bureaucratic management

    • D.

      Taylorism

  85. Q 85.

    Who is known as the father of the quality movement in the chapter?

    • A.

      W. Edwards Deming

    • B.

      Elton Mayo

    • C.

      Henri Fayol

    • D.

      Max Weber

  86. Q 86.

    Which statement best defines Total Quality Management?

    • A.

      Managing the total organization to deliver quality

    • B.

      Inspecting only the final product after production

    • C.

      Assigning all quality responsibility to senior managers

    • D.

      Using one fixed process that can never be changed

  87. Q 87.

    Which set contains the four key elements of quality management?

    • A.

      Employee involvement, customer focus, benchmarking, and continuous improvement

    • B.

      Planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling

    • C.

      Selection, training, standard methods, and incentives

    • D.

      Rigid hierarchy, red tape, family authority, and secrecy

  88. Q 88.

    A company repeatedly uses customer feedback to revise its services. Which TQM element does this practice most directly demonstrate?

    • A.

      Focus on the customer

    • B.

      Scalar chain

    • C.

      Centralization

    • D.

      Division of labor

  89. Q 89.

    A hospital compares its patient-safety procedures with those of leading hospitals and adopts proven practices. Which TQM element is being used?

    • A.

      Benchmarking

    • B.

      Unity of command

    • C.

      Theory X

    • D.

      Informal organization

  90. Q 90.

    Which statement best reflects the culture required by Total Quality Management?

    • A.

      Only the quality department is responsible for quality.

    • B.

      Once performance is satisfactory, no further improvement is needed.

    • C.

      Every employee helps build quality and continuously improve processes.

    • D.

      Quality should be evaluated only through final inspection.

  91. Q 91.

    Who began the discussion of the learning organization that is emphasized in the chapter?

    • A.

      Peter Senge

    • B.

      Henry Gantt

    • C.

      Max Weber

    • D.

      Chester Barnard

  92. Q 92.

    Which feature most clearly distinguishes a learning organization?

    • A.

      All employees participate in identifying and solving problems.

    • B.

      Only senior managers are permitted to learn.

    • C.

      Learning occurs only after technology fails.

    • D.

      Standard methods must never be questioned.

  93. Q 93.

    Why are learning and organizational growth important in a changing environment?

    • A.

      They increase the organization’s capacity to adapt, learn, and grow.

    • B.

      They eliminate the need for managerial planning.

    • C.

      They ensure that the environment will remain unchanged.

    • D.

      They remove the need to solve new problems.

  94. Q 94.

    What shift does the learning-organization perspective encourage organizations to make?

    • A.

      From maximizing efficiency alone toward learning and solving problems

    • B.

      From employee participation toward complete managerial isolation

    • C.

      From adaptation toward permanent dependence on one routine

    • D.

      From shared goals toward disconnected individual objectives

  95. Q 95.

    A retailer coordinates suppliers, production schedules, inventory, and delivery to serve customers. Which key workplace technology is being applied?

    • A.

      Supply Chain Management

    • B.

      Customer Relationship Management

    • C.

      Outsourcing

    • D.

      Big data analytics

  96. Q 96.

    What is the primary purpose of big data analytics in the technology-driven workplace?

    • A.

      Gather and analyze large amounts of data to understand customers better

    • B.

      Create additional layers in the formal hierarchy

    • C.

      Require employees to follow identical thought processes

    • D.

      Eliminate all human judgment from decisions

  97. Q 97.

    Which statement best describes a platform-based organization?

    • A.

      An organization that operates through the functionality of digital or social platforms

    • B.

      An organization that predates computers and uses only paper files

    • C.

      A hierarchy in which every decision is centralized

    • D.

      A system based only on informal face-to-face groups

  98. Q 98.

    How is the sharing economy connected to platform-based digital organizations?

    • A.

      It often uses digital platforms to connect providers and users of goods or services.

    • B.

      It requires every provider to work inside the same factory

    • C.

      It eliminates the need for any digital connection

    • D.

      It is based only on formal government licensing

  99. Q 99.

    Which development is central to the people-driven workplace?

    • A.

      Greater employee control, responsibility, energy, and creativity

    • B.

      The removal of employee responsibility

    • C.

      The return to strictly centralized authority

    • D.

      A universal ban on workplace collaboration

  100. Q 100.

    A company gives decision authority to employees who are closest to the customer and the work. Which contemporary management idea does this practice illustrate?

    • A.

      Empowerment in a people-driven workplace

    • B.

      Strict adherence to the scalar chain

    • C.

      Taylor’s standardization of every task

    • D.

      Bureaucratic centralization

Answers and explanations are in mode.