Đề luyện thi giữa kỳ 1 môn Tiếng Anh GS12 – Practice Test 1, 2, 3

104 questions
20 min
Answer key

Exam info

Subject
Tiếng Anh
Exam type
High school
Questions
104
Duration
20 min
Year
2026
Answers
✓ With explanations

Structure (18 parts)

  1. 1.

    Practice Test 1 – Task 1 (4 Q)

    Listen to a talk about Alfred Nobel's biography and decide if each statement below is true (A) or false (B). You can listen to the recording TWICE (1.0pt).

  2. 2.

    Practice Test 1 – Task 2 (4 Q)

    Listen again to a talk about Alfred Nobel's biography and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each sentence. You can listen to the recording TWICE (1.0pt).

  3. 3.

    Practice Test 1 – Section I (5 Q)

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank (1.25pts).

  4. 4.

    Practice Test 1 – Section II (5 Q)

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank (1.25pts).

  5. 5.

    Practice Test 1 – Section III (8 Q)

    Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each of the following questions (2.0pts).

  6. 6.

    Practice Test 1 – Section IV (4 Q)

    Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are True or False (1.0pt).

  7. 7.

    Practice Test 2 – Task 1 (4 Q)

    Listen to two people talking about problems of mega cities. Decide if the statements are true (A) or false (B). You can listen to the recording TWICE.

  8. 8.

    Practice Test 2 – Task 2 (4 Q)

    Listen to a talk about evolution and future of urbanisation and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. You can listen to the recording TWICE.

  9. 9.

    Practice Test 2 – Section I (5 Q)

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

  10. 10.

    Practice Test 2 – Section II (5 Q)

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

  11. 11.

    Practice Test 2 – Section III (8 Q)

    Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each of the following questions.

  12. 12.

    Practice Test 2 – Section IV (4 Q)

    Read the following passage and decide whether the statements that follow are true (A), false (B).

  13. 13.

    Practice Test 3 – Task 1 (4 Q)

    Listen to three people talking about interesting cultural facts in their countries. Decide if each statement below is True or False. You can listen to the recording TWICE.

  14. 14.

    Practice Test 3 – Task 2 (4 Q)

    Listen again to three people talking about interesting cultural facts in their countries and choose the correct answer to each of the sentence. You can listen to the recording TWICE.

  15. 15.

    Practice Test 3 – Section I (5 Q)

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

  16. 16.

    Practice Test 3 – Section II (5 Q)

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

  17. 17.

    Practice Test 3 – Section III (8 Q)

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

  18. 18.

    Practice Test 3 – Section IV (4 Q)

    Read the following passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True (A), False (B).

Questions (104)

  1. Practice Test 1 – Task 1

    Listen to a talk about Alfred Nobel's biography and decide if each statement below is true (A) or false (B). You can listen to the recording TWICE (1.0pt).

    [Audio – Alfred Nobel biography talk]

  2. Q 1.

    He was the third of the nine children of his parents.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  3. Q 2.

    He studied under the chemist Nikolai Zinin and went to Paris in 1850.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  4. Q 3.

    The first Nobel prizes were awarded in 1901.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  5. Q 4.

    He met Sophie Hesse in 1867 and developed relationship with her.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  6. Practice Test 1 – Task 2

    Listen again to a talk about Alfred Nobel's biography and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each sentence. You can listen to the recording TWICE (1.0pt).

    [Audio – Alfred Nobel biography talk]

  7. Q 5.

    Alfred Nobel was born in Stockholm, Sweden on October 21st, ________.

    • A.

      1833

    • B.

      1834

    • C.

      1813

    • D.

      1835

  8. Q 6.

    He went to the United States at the age of 18 to further his knowledge on ________.

    • A.

      Physics

    • B.

      Chemistry

    • C.

      Mathematics

    • D.

      Politics

  9. Q 7.

    He developed Gelignite which was even more _______ than dynamite in 1876.

    • A.

      powerfulness

    • B.

      power

    • C.

      powerful

    • D.

      powerfully

  10. Q 8.

    He died at San Remo Italy on December 10th, 1896 at the age of ________.

    • A.

      53

    • B.

      83

    • C.

      73

    • D.

      63

  11. Practice Test 1 – Section I

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank (1.25pts).

    Alexander Graham Bell was a Scottish-born scientist and inventor (9) ______ was best known for inventing the first working telephone.

    Bell was born in Edinburgh, Scotland, on March 3, 1847. During his youth, Bell was strongly influenced by his family and his environment. Bell's hometown of Edinburgh, Scotland, was known as (10) ______ “Athens of the North” for its rich culture of arts and science.

    By the age of 16, Alexander had joined his father in his work with the deaf. In 1870, the family (11) ______ in Brantford, Ontario, Canada. There, Alexander set up a workshop to continue his study of the human voice. On July 11, 1877, Bell married Mabie Hubbard who had been deaf since her early childhood years.

    On March 10, 1876, after many years of work, Bell perfected his most well-known (12) ______ , the telephone, and made his first telephone call. The Bell Telephone Company was organised on July 9, 1877. In 1880, Bell established the Volta Laboratory in Washington, D.C., an experimental facility devoted to (13) ______ discovery.

    Throughout his life, Bell continued his family's work with the deaf. Bell died peacefully on August 2, 1922, at his home in Baddeck on Cape Breton Island, Nova Scotia, Canada.

  12. Q 9.

    Alexander Graham Bell was a Scottish-born scientist and inventor (9) ______ was best known for inventing the first working telephone.

    • A.

      whom

    • B.

      which

    • C.

      who

    • D.

      when

  13. Q 10.

    Bell's hometown of Edinburgh was known as (10) ______ "Athens of the North".

    • A.

      the

    • B.

      an

    • C.

      a

    • D.

      Ø (no article)

  14. Q 11.

    In 1870, the family (11) ______ in Brantford, Ontario, Canada.

    • A.

      was settling

    • B.

      settled

    • C.

      settles

    • D.

      has settled

  15. Q 12.

    Bell perfected his most well-known (12) ______, the telephone.

    • A.

      inventional

    • B.

      inventionally

    • C.

      invention

    • D.

      invent

  16. Q 13.

    an experimental facility devoted to (13) ______ discovery.

    • A.

      scientifically

    • B.

      science

    • C.

      scientist

    • D.

      scientific

  17. Practice Test 1 – Section II

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank (1.25pts).

    Building Friendships in a Multicultural World

    Living in a multicultural world is an amazing experience for young people. They can explore different traditions, taste new foods, and learn new ways of thinking. (14) ______, it helps them become more open-minded and respectful. For example, a student from Vietnam may share stories (15) ______ Tet, while a friend from Japan talks about cherry blossom festivals.

    Of course, it is necessary (16) ______ positive attitudes when meeting people from other cultures. Students should try (17) ______ cultural activities such as cooking classes, language clubs, or international fairs. These experiences give them the chance to wear traditional costumes, enjoy music, and practice foreign languages.

    Sometimes cultural differences cause confusion. However, most problems can be solved if people listen carefully and respect each other. Another good idea is to (18) ______ compliments when someone introduces their traditions. This simple action shows appreciation and builds stronger relationships.

    Living in a diverse world does not only provide knowledge but also creates opportunities for friendship and cooperation.

  18. Q 14.

    (14) ______, it helps them become more open-minded and respectful.

    • A.

      However

    • B.

      In addition

    • C.

      On the contrary

    • D.

      Nevertheless

  19. Q 15.

    a student from Vietnam may share stories (15) ______ Tet

    • A.

      about

    • B.

      with

    • C.

      on

    • D.

      at

  20. Q 16.

    it is necessary (16) ______ positive attitudes

    • A.

      keep

    • B.

      keeping

    • C.

      to keep

    • D.

      kept

  21. Q 17.

    Students should try (17) ______ cultural activities

    • A.

      attend

    • B.

      to attend

    • C.

      attended

    • D.

      attending

  22. Q 18.

    Another good idea is to (18) ______ compliments

    • A.

      give

    • B.

      share

    • C.

      have

    • D.

      take

  23. Practice Test 1 – Section III

    Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each of the following questions (2.0pts).

    The pollution of our atmosphere arises from human activities, notably the emission of greenhouse gases through actions like agriculture, transportation, industry and household operations. Waste disposal also contributes significantly. Air pollution has a tremendous impact on human health and nature.

    About 50 per cent of the world's waste is not managed properly. Unfortunately, a part of this mismanagement involves open dumping and burning. When waste is disposed of in this manner, it releases harmful substances into the air. This can significantly impact both our health and the environment, making it difficult to breathe, and worsening existing health problems. That's why we need to manage our waste properly by recycling, composting, and safely treating waste.

    Informal workers in the waste management sector, including children, are sometimes hired to collect, sort or dispose of waste in unsafe conditions. When waste is managed in an unsafe manner, it can release toxic chemicals into the air and water, putting these workers and their communities at risk. When UNEP assists local waste management teams in improving their practices, it directly benefits these informal workers and their families and communities as well.

    (I). When it comes to waste management, it's not only up to individuals. (II). Companies and governments also make a significant impact. Companies can use less packaging and create products with reduced waste. (III). They can design their products to be easily recycled, and support regulations for improved waste management. (IV). Governments also play a crucial role. They can establish strong regulations to prevent dumping and burning. By investing in better waste handling methods, they contribute to everyone breathing cleaner air and enjoying a safer environment.

  24. Q 19.

    Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

    • A.

      The Global Impact of Greenhouse Gas Emissions

    • B.

      Problems Related to Waste Management and Solutions

    • C.

      The Causes and Consequences of Air Pollution

    • D.

      The Importance of Waste Management

  25. Q 20.

    Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a serious consequence of improper waste management?

    • A.

      producing toxic chemicals or substances

    • B.

      making people's existing health problems worse

    • C.

      not having enough landfills

    • D.

      threatening the health of informal workers and their communities

  26. Q 21.

    The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

    • A.

      mismanagement

    • B.

      burning

    • C.

      waste

    • D.

      manner

  27. Q 22.

    The word "harmful" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.

    • A.

      careful

    • B.

      useful

    • C.

      benefit

    • D.

      damaging

  28. Q 23.

    The word "Informal" in paragraph 3 is opposite in meaning to _________.

    • A.

      Formal

    • B.

      Shy

    • C.

      Simple

    • D.

      Harmful

  29. Q 24.

    Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit? "It is important that companies and governments should use less packaging and create products with reduced waste."

    • A.

      [I]

    • B.

      [II]

    • C.

      [III]

    • D.

      [IV]

  30. Q 25.

    Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

    • A.

      Over 50 per cent of the world's waste is not managed properly

    • B.

      They can establish strong regulations to prevent dumping and burning

    • C.

      They can't design their products to be easily recycled, and support regulations

    • D.

      The pollution of our atmosphere doesn't arise from human activities

  31. Q 26.

    Which of the following is stated in the passage?

    • A.

      Companies can contribute to better waste management by using more packaging.

    • B.

      Open dumping and burning is a cause of waste mismanagement.

    • C.

      Governments set strong regulations to create products with decreased waste.

    • D.

      UNEP provides waste management training to governments and companies.

  32. Practice Test 1 – Section IV

    Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are True or False (1.0pt).

    As a practice, tipping has its origins in Europe of the Middle Ages (a period which lasted from about 500 to 1,500 A.D.) when the wealthy would give people in lower classes extra money for their services, according to Kerry Segrave's "Tipping: An American Social History of Gratuities."

    In the 1800s, Americans who had seen tipping on travels abroad "thought this would be a wonderful thing to kind of mimic our brothers and sisters in Europe" and brought the practice to the U.S., says Stephen Zagor, a professor at Columbia Business School specialising in the restaurant industry. Though many Americans rebelled against it, the practice spread.

    At the end of the Civil War, America's labour force "was flooded" with formerly enslaved people and immigrants. Employers took advantage of this class of "low-educated, low-income" workers and hired them for jobs that paid very little, encouraging people to tip as a supplement to wages. This shifted the responsibility of paying workers to customers and cut employers' costs.

    Various businesses within the service industry adopted the practice. But the company that made tipping popular was the Pullman Company, which built and operated railroad cars.

    In the 1860s, the company purposely hired "formerly enslaved people to achieve the high-quality customer service the Pullman cars were known for," according to the Library of Congress. Workers shined shoes, made beds, woke up passengers and so on. They worked long hours and relied heavily on tips for pay.

  33. Q 27.

    Tipping originated in Europe during the Middle Ages.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  34. Q 28.

    Americans brought the practice of tipping to the U.S. in the 1800s.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  35. Q 29.

    The practice of tipping was widely accepted by Americans from the beginning.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  36. Q 30.

    Workers at the Pullman Company were well-compensated by their employers.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  37. Q 31.

    Arrange the utterances: a. Maria: Yeah, I watched it! ... b. Alex: Hey, did you see the Elon Musk Show last night? c. Alex: Same here. ...

    • A.

      b – a – c

    • B.

      a – c – b

    • C.

      a – b – c

    • D.

      c – a – b

  38. Q 32.

    Arrange the sentences a–e into a meaningful paragraph about the effect of Kpop on Vietnamese youth.

    • A.

      d-e-a-c-b

    • B.

      d-a-e-c-b

    • C.

      d-e-c-a-b

    • D.

      e-d-c-d-b

  39. Q 33.

    People built our school in 1992. (Rewrite beginning with: Our school ...)

  40. Q 34.

    Minh has done his Physics homework. (Rewrite beginning with: Minh's Physics homework ...)

  41. Q 35.

    I was walking along the riverside when it started to rain heavily. (Rewrite beginning with: It started to rain heavily ...)

  42. Q 36.

    Lam passed the English test with flying colors. This made his parents very proud. (Combine the sentences, using WHICH)

  43. Practice Test 2 – Task 1

    Listen to two people talking about problems of mega cities. Decide if the statements are true (A) or false (B). You can listen to the recording TWICE.

    [Audio – Speaker 1: megacity traffic in Los Angeles; Speaker 2: waste management in mega cities]

  44. Q 37.

    Practice Test 2 Task 1 – In 1950, there were 34 mega cities in the world.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  45. Q 38.

    Los Angeles has successfully resolved its traffic congestion issues.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  46. Q 39.

    Traffic congestion cost Los Angeles nearly 20 billion dollars in lost productivity in 2017.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  47. Q 40.

    Recycling in megacities needs to be highly sophisticated.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  48. Practice Test 2 – Task 2

    Listen to a talk about evolution and future of urbanisation and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. You can listen to the recording TWICE.

    [Audio – Talk on evolution and future of urbanisation]

  49. Q 41.

    Our ancestors knew about selective breeding ________.

    • A.

      20,000 years ago

    • B.

      15,000 years ago

    • C.

      10,000 years ago

    • D.

      5,000 years ago

  50. Q 42.

    People in semi-permanent villages had to relocate every few years ________ was no longer good for farming.

    • A.

      because the soil

    • B.

      because of the soil

    • C.

      although the soil

    • D.

      but the soil

  51. Q 43.

    Most people will live in ________ areas in the world's poorest countries in the future.

    • A.

      city

    • B.

      town

    • C.

      urban

    • D.

      suburb

  52. Q 44.

    Three big problems cities need to solve for population growth are food ________, sanitation and education.

    • A.

      collection

    • B.

      provision

    • C.

      supplying

    • D.

      production

  53. Practice Test 2 – Section I

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

    Green Living

    Green living is becoming increasingly popular as people recognise the importance of protecting the environment. It involves making daily choices that reduce pollution and save natural resources. People (9) ______ choose to live sustainably often use reusable bags, cycle to work, and avoid single-use plastics.

    One simple way to adopt a greener lifestyle is to save energy at home. Turning off lights when they are not needed and using energy-efficient appliances can make (10) ______ significant difference. In addition, people can reduce waste by separating rubbish for recycling. Over the past few years, many communities (11) ______ more environmentally friendly habits through local campaigns and educational programmes.

    Green living also encourages people to make (12) ______ shopping decisions. Buying local products can reduce transportation emissions and support small businesses. More importantly, environmental awareness helps individuals understand how their actions affect the planet. If everyone makes small changes, these efforts can have a positive impact on the environment and contribute to a more (13) ______ future.

  54. Q 45.

    People (9) ______ choose to live sustainably often use reusable bags, cycle to work, and avoid single-use plastics.

    • A.

      whose

    • B.

      who

    • C.

      where

    • D.

      which

  55. Q 46.

    Turning off lights ... can make (10) ______ significant difference.

    • A.

      a

    • B.

      an

    • C.

      the

    • D.

      Ø (no article)

  56. Q 47.

    Over the past few years, many communities (11) ______ more environmentally friendly habits.

    • A.

      develop

    • B.

      have developed

    • C.

      are developing

    • D.

      had developed

  57. Q 48.

    Green living also encourages people to make (12) ______ shopping decisions.

    • A.

      responsibility

    • B.

      responsibly

    • C.

      responsible

    • D.

      irresponsible

  58. Q 49.

    ...contribute to a more (13) ______ future.

    • A.

      unsustainable

    • B.

      sustainability

    • C.

      sustainably

    • D.

      sustainable

  59. Practice Test 2 – Section II

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

    Vincent van Gogh was a well-known painter whose work is famous (14) _________ its beauty, emotion and colour. Van Gogh was born on March 30, 1853, in Groot-Zundert, Netherlands. At age 15, Van Gogh's family was struggling financially, and he was forced to (15) _________ school and go to work. He got a job at his Uncle Cornells' art dealership, Goupil & cie. By this time, Van Gogh was fluent in French, German and English, as well as his native Dutch.

    In June of 1873, Van Gogh was transferred to the Groupil Gallery in London. There, he fell in love with English culture. He visited art galleries in his spare time. He also fell in love with his landlady's daughter, Eugenie Loyer. When she refused his marriage proposal, Van Gogh suffered a breakdown. He threw away all his books except for the Bible, and devoted his life to God.

    In the fall of 1880, van Gogh decided (16) _________ to Brussels and become an artist. Although he had no formal art training, his brother Theo offered to support van Gogh financially. In 1885, he began work on what is considered to be his first masterpiece, "Potato Eaters".

    Vincent van Gogh completed more than 2,100 works, (17) _________ of 860 oil paintings and more than 1,300 watercolors, drawings and sketches. Several of his paintings now rank among the most expensive in the world. A few of van Gogh's most well-known artworks include: Starry Night and Sunflowers. Van Gogh painted the Starry Night in the asylum where he was staying in Saint-Rémy, France, in 1889, the year before his death. On July 29, 1890, Vincent van Gogh died in the arms of his brother Theo. He was only 37 years old.

    Today, Vincent van Gogh is considered one of the greatest artists in human history, (18) _________ he struggled with mental illness and remained poor and virtually unknown throughout his life.

  60. Q 50.

    Van Gogh is famous (14) _________ its beauty, emotion and colour.

    • A.

      for

    • B.

      about

    • C.

      of

    • D.

      with

  61. Q 51.

    he was forced to (15) _________ school and go to work.

    • A.

      found

    • B.

      leave

    • C.

      work

    • D.

      attend

  62. Q 52.

    van Gogh decided (16) _________ to Brussels and become an artist.

    • A.

      moved

    • B.

      move

    • C.

      moving

    • D.

      to move

  63. Q 53.

    Van Gogh completed more than 2,100 works, (17) _________ of 860 oil paintings...

    • A.

      to consist

    • B.

      consisting

    • C.

      consisted

    • D.

      consist

  64. Q 54.

    ...one of the greatest artists in human history, (18) _________ he struggled with mental illness...

    • A.

      because

    • B.

      and

    • C.

      but

    • D.

      so

  65. Practice Test 2 – Section III

    Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each of the following questions.

    Green Living: Small Changes, Big Differences

    Green living means making choices that help protect the environment and reduce the use of natural resources. Although environmental problems may seem too big for individuals to solve, our daily habits can make a significant difference when many people take action together.

    One effective way to live more sustainably is to reduce waste. Instead of buying bottled water every day, people can carry reusable bottles. They can also bring their own shopping bags and choose products with less packaging. Furthermore, repairing old items rather than replacing them can save both money and resources.

    Energy conservation is another important part of green living. Turning off unnecessary lights, using energy-efficient appliances, and walking or cycling for short journeys can reduce energy consumption and air pollution. Although these changes may appear small, they can have a positive effect on the environment over time.

    However, green living is not only about individual behaviour. Schools, businesses, and local authorities should work together to create greener communities. For example, schools can organise recycling programmes, while local authorities can improve public transport and provide more green spaces. By making environmentally friendly choices and encouraging others to do the same, we can build a healthier and more sustainable future.

  66. Q 55.

    Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit? "These simple habits help reduce the amount of plastic waste that ends up in landfills and oceans."

    • A.

      [I]

    • B.

      [II]

    • C.

      [III]

    • D.

      [IV]

  67. Q 56.

    Which of the following statements is FALSE according to the passage?

    • A.

      Energy-efficient appliances can help reduce energy consumption.

    • B.

      Walking or cycling for short journeys can reduce air pollution.

    • C.

      Green living is only the responsibility of individuals, not organisations.

    • D.

      Local authorities can improve public transport to support greener communities.

  68. Q 57.

    What can be inferred from the passage?

    • A.

      Environmental problems can be solved without any changes in daily habits.

    • B.

      Recycling is the only effective way to protect the environment.

    • C.

      Cooperation between individuals and organisations can make green living more effective.

    • D.

      People should replace old products regularly to protect natural resources.

  69. Q 58.

    What is the best title for the passage?

    • A.

      The Dangers of Modern Technology

    • B.

      Why Public Transport Is Expensive

    • C.

      The History of Environmental Protection

    • D.

      Green Living: Simple Actions for a Sustainable Future

  70. Q 59.

    What does the word "them" in paragraph 2 refer to?

    • A.

      landfills and oceans

    • B.

      their own shopping bags and reusable bottles

    • C.

      environmental problems

    • D.

      natural resources

  71. Q 60.

    The word "significant" in paragraph 1 has the SIMILAR meaning to _______.

    • A.

      ordinary

    • B.

      important

    • C.

      limited

    • D.

      unnecessary

  72. Q 61.

    The word "reduce" in paragraph 3 has the OPPOSITE meaning to _______.

    • A.

      decrease

    • B.

      lower

    • C.

      increase

    • D.

      limit

  73. Q 62.

    What is the main idea of paragraph 4?

    • A.

      Schools should focus only on recycling programmes.

    • B.

      Local authorities are the only organisations responsible for green living.

    • C.

      Businesses should avoid making changes to their operations.

    • D.

      Different groups in society should cooperate to create greener communities.

  74. Practice Test 2 – Section IV

    Read the following passage and decide whether the statements that follow are true (A), false (B).

    The world today is becoming more multicultural than ever before. People from different countries and backgrounds are living, studying, and working together in the same communities. This diversity brings both opportunities and challenges. On the positive side, living in a multicultural society allows people to learn about new traditions, languages, and ways of thinking. It can also encourage creativity and innovation, as individuals share unique ideas and experiences.

    However, cultural differences can sometimes lead to misunderstanding or conflict. For example, people may have different ways of greeting, eating, or expressing emotions. If they do not respect or try to understand one another, these differences may cause tension. Education plays a vital role in promoting tolerance and open-mindedness. Schools that teach students about global cultures help them become more empathetic and respectful citizens.

    In the end, being part of a multicultural world is not just about living side by side, but about learning to appreciate and celebrate our differences. When people work together with mutual respect, diversity becomes a strength rather than a barrier.

  75. Q 63.

    Living in a multicultural society helps people become more creative and open-minded.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  76. Q 64.

    The passage says cultural differences never cause misunderstandings.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  77. Q 65.

    Education can help young people understand and respect other cultures.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  78. Q 66.

    The author believes that diversity makes society weaker and more divided.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  79. Q 67.

    Arrange the sentences a–d into a meaningful paragraph about Kim Dong.

    • A.

      b-a-c-d

    • B.

      b-c-a-d

    • C.

      b-a-d-c

    • D.

      a-b-c-d

  80. Q 68.

    Arrange the utterances: a. Mai: Hai, This is John... b. John: Please to meet you, too. c. Hai: Please to meet you, John.

    • A.

      b – a – c

    • B.

      a – c – b

    • C.

      a – b – c

    • D.

      c – a – b

  81. Q 69.

    They built a new bridge across the river last year. (Rewrite beginning with: A new bridge ...)

  82. Q 70.

    They have repaired the school roof recently. (Rewrite beginning with: The school roof ...)

  83. Q 71.

    We were having dinner when the lights suddenly went out. (Rewrite beginning with: The lights suddenly went out ...)

  84. Q 72.

    The students organized a charity concert to raise funds for homeless children despite their busy exam schedule. That showed their strong sense of social responsibility. (Combine using WHICH)

  85. Practice Test 3 – Task 2

    Listen again to three people talking about interesting cultural facts in their countries and choose the correct answer to each of the sentence. You can listen to the recording TWICE.

    [Audio – Cultural facts talk, same as Task 1]

  86. Q 73.

    Cultural facts – In Japan, it is customary to slurp noodles loudly while _______ them.

    • A.

      eating

    • B.

      eaten

    • C.

      to eat

    • D.

      eat

  87. Q 74.

    Families create altars with _______, candles and offerings of food and drink.

    • A.

      pictures

    • B.

      flowers

    • C.

      showers

    • D.

      dishes

  88. Q 75.

    In Thailand it is considered _______ to touch someone's head.

    • A.

      politeness

    • B.

      politely

    • C.

      impolite

    • D.

      polite

  89. Q 76.

    If you're in Thailand remember to keep your _______ to yourself.

    • A.

      fingers

    • B.

      legs

    • C.

      heads

    • D.

      hands

  90. Practice Test 3 – Section I

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

    Vo Thi Sau was born in Ba Ria- Vung Tau province in 1933. She was just a schoolgirl when she became involved in revolutionary activities. When Ho Chi Minh (9) _______ independence against the French in 1945, she was only 12 years old. A few years later, she joined the Viet Minh and became a guerrilla fighter.

    At the age of 14 while in (10) _______ busy market, she threw a grenade at a group of French soldiers. She managed to kill one officer and injured several others. She was able to escape unnoticed. At 16, she planned another grenade attack, however, the grenade failed to explode and she was arrested by the French authorities. She was then shipped off to three different prisons, the final being Con Son prison on the Con Dao archipelago. She was executed by firing squad in 1952 (11) _______ she was only 19-years-old. It's said she refused to be blindfolded and stared into the eyes of the soldiers while singing until she was killed.

    Today, she is considered a national hero and a symbol of the (12) _______ spirit. Her grave is frequently visited by Vietnamese citizens, especially at night. To honour her (13) _______, many streets, parks, and schools are named after her across Viet Nam.

  91. Q 77.

    When Ho Chi Minh (9) _______ independence against the French in 1945, she was only 12 years old.

    • A.

      was declaring

    • B.

      declares

    • C.

      declared

    • D.

      had declared

  92. Q 78.

    At the age of 14 while in (10) _______ busy market...

    • A.

      the

    • B.

      an

    • C.

      a

    • D.

      Ø

  93. Q 79.

    She was executed by firing squad in 1952 (11) _______ she was only 19-years-old.

    • A.

      since

    • B.

      when

    • C.

      while

    • D.

      after

  94. Q 80.

    ...a symbol of the (12) _______ spirit.

    • A.

      revolutionism

    • B.

      revolute

    • C.

      revolutionary

    • D.

      revolution

  95. Q 81.

    To honour her (13) _______, many streets, parks, and schools are named after her.

    • A.

      memorably

    • B.

      memorable

    • C.

      memorialize

    • D.

      memory

  96. Practice Test 3 – Section II

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank.

    Marie Curie was born on 7th November, 1867. Her father and mother were teachers. She was the youngest of the five children. She was ten years old and began (14) _________ the boarding school of J. Sikosra. Then she (15) _________ a gymnasium for girls from which she graduated on 12 June 1883 with a gold medal. She started her practical scientific training at the chemical laboratory. In 1891, she moved to France and enrolled herself at the Sorbonne University. In 1893, she was awarded a master's degree in Physics. She returned to Paris to pursue a PhD. In 1894, Marie met Pierre Curie. Like Marie, he was a scientist and the two of them fell in love. They married on July 26th 1895 and they had two daughters. Marie became fascinated by rays that were recently discovered by scientists Wilhelm Roentgen and Henri Becquerel. Roentgen discovered X-rays and Becquerel had found rays given off by an element called uranium. Marie and her husband began to do experiments. They eventually discovered two new elements for the periodic table. Marie named one of the elements polonium after her homeland, Poland and named the other radium (16) _________ it gave off such strong rays. In 1903, the Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to Marie and Pierre Curie as well as Henri Becquerel for their work in radiation. In 1911, Marie won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for discovering the two elements polonium and radium. She was the first person (17) _________ awarded two Nobel Prizes. Scientists came (18) _________ around the world to study radioactivity with Marie. Soon doctors found that radiology could help with curing cancer. When World War I started, Marie learned that doctors could use x-rays to help determine what was wrong with an injured soldier that time. She died in Pasi Haute Savoie, France on 4 July 1934 at the age of 66.

  97. Q 82.

    She was just ... began (14) _________ the boarding school of J. Sikosra.

    • A.

      to attend

    • B.

      attending

    • C.

      attended

    • D.

      attend

  98. Q 83.

    Then she (15) _________ a gymnasium for girls from which she graduated...

    • A.

      attends

    • B.

      attended

    • C.

      has attended

    • D.

      was attending

  99. Q 84.

    ...named the other radium (16) _________ it gave off such strong rays.

    • A.

      because

    • B.

      although

    • C.

      when

    • D.

      so that

  100. Q 85.

    She was the first person (17) _________ awarded two Nobel Prizes.

    • A.

      be

    • B.

      being

    • C.

      been

    • D.

      to be

  101. Q 86.

    Scientists came (18) _________ around the world to study radioactivity with Marie.

    • A.

      on

    • B.

      for

    • C.

      from

    • D.

      to

  102. Practice Test 3 – Section III

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

    The pandemic and the lockdown have ruined businesses worldwide. Businesses will want to make commitments to the environment as they try to recover, especially as some governments reduce requirements for environmental protection.

    (I). This is short-sighted: Businesses do not have to sacrifice their environmental goals for protecting their growth. (II). Green ideas like offering green products or services, introducing green processes and hiring employees to promote sustainable practices can actually help businesses. (III). Using data on 9,236 businesses in 35 countries across Europe and the US, our research suggests that on average, businesses benefit from going green. (IV). Although the type of greening that gives the most significant benefit may differ between businesses.

    By offering new green products or services, a business is more likely to serve an emerging trend or niche market, which can make it more competitive. Frugalpac, a UK-based company that makes paper-based packaging for liquids that cut carbon footprints, received a £2 million investment during the pandemic - a time when most other companies were facing financial problems. Already seeing success for their recycled paper coffee cup, Frugalpac's innovative paper wine bottle, also made from 94% recycled paper, has led to new opportunities and partnerships.

    Job seekers are increasingly attracted to companies that care for the environment. The employees of companies that promote sustainability are more likely to believe that their employer will care for them, and are more satisfied with their jobs. Such companies create a higher sense of purpose that makes work meaningful. By some estimates, companies that follow green practices have a 16% increase in employee productivity. Some of the greenest companies, such as Cisco, Tarmac or Stantec, are also considered the greatest companies by employees.

    Greening processes can increase efficiency by reducing energy costs, allowing businesses to secure green tax credits and improving operational efficiency. As many as 75% of UK businesses that invested in green technologies enjoyed commercial benefits, even if financial concerns are barriers to making these green investments in the first place. For large companies such as Procter & Gamble, these gains can run into billions of pounds. In contrast, in cases where businesses harm the environment, they have to be prepared to pay for huge costs.

  103. Q 87.

    Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

    • A.

      The Global Impact of the Pandemic on Businesses

    • B.

      The Importance of Green Practices for Companies

    • C.

      Employee Productivity in Green Companies

    • D.

      Increased Efficiency Gained by Going Green

  104. Q 88.

    The word "ruined" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.

    • A.

      threatened

    • B.

      assisted

    • C.

      promoted

    • D.

      proposed

  105. Q 89.

    Which benefit does a business offering green products get according to paragraph 3?

    • A.

      the decrease in competitiveness

    • B.

      the increase in new financial struggles

    • C.

      the development in a large market

    • D.

      the development in a niche market and increased competitiveness

  106. Q 90.

    Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit? "The type of greening gives the most important benefit, but it may differ between businesses."

    • A.

      [II]

    • B.

      [III]

    • C.

      [IV]

    • D.

      [I]

  107. Q 91.

    The word "increase" in paragraph 5 is opposite in meaning to _________.

    • A.

      rise

    • B.

      exist

    • C.

      move

    • D.

      decrease

  108. Q 92.

    The word "they" in paragraph 5 refers to _________.

    • A.

      technologies

    • B.

      businesses

    • C.

      investments

    • D.

      gains

  109. Q 93.

    Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

    • A.

      The more employees care for the environment, the more they are satisfied with their jobs.

    • B.

      Businesses should focus solely on financial recovery after the pandemic.

    • C.

      Financial concerns are always main obstacles to businesses making green investments.

    • D.

      Frugalpac's success during the pandemic demonstrates the potential of green initiatives.

  110. Q 94.

    Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

    • A.

      The pandemic and lockdown have had a negative impact on businesses worldwide.

    • B.

      A quarter of UK businesses investing in green technologies gained commercial benefits.

    • C.

      Frugalpac did not face financial problems like most other companies during the pandemic.

    • D.

      Proctor & Gamble is mentioned as a large company benefiting from green practices.

  111. Practice Test 3 – Section IV

    Read the following passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True (A), False (B).

    One of the most obvious effects of globalisation on local cultures is the spread of popular culture. With the rise of global media and the internet, cultural products such as music, films, and television shows are now easily accessible in even the most remote corners of the world. This has led to the erosion of traditional cultural practices and music. For example, many traditional music styles and instruments are being replaced by Western pop music and electric instruments, and traditional dress is being replaced by Western-style clothing. This can lead to a loss of cultural identity and a sense of disconnection from one's own heritage.

    Another effect of globalisation on local cultures is the erosion of traditional languages. As people become more exposed to global media and travel more, they are more likely to adopt the language of the dominant global culture, often at the expense of their own traditional languages. This can lead to a loss of linguistic diversity. In some cases, it can also lead to the extinction of languages that are not passed down to future generations.

  112. Q 95.

    The spread of popular culture is one of the most obvious effects of globalisation on local cultures.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  113. Q 96.

    The rise of global media and the internet are now easily accessible in even the most remote corners of the world.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  114. Q 97.

    Many traditional music styles and instruments are being replaced by Asian pop music and electric instruments.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  115. Q 98.

    Another effect of globalisation on local cultures isn't the erosion of traditional languages.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

  116. Q 99.

    Arrange the utterances about organising a Cultural Diversity Day (a–d).

    • A.

      b-a-c-d

    • B.

      a-b-c-d

    • C.

      a-b-d-c

    • D.

      a-c-b-d

  117. Q 100.

    Arrange the sentences a–e into a meaningful paragraph about Vietnamese cultural taboos.

    • A.

      d-a-c-e-b

    • B.

      c-b-e-d-a

    • C.

      b-d-a-c-e

    • D.

      a-d-e-c-d

  118. Q 101.

    Nguyen Phong wrote "May lives, many times". (Rewrite: "Many lives, many times" ...)

  119. Q 102.

    We have already done our homework. (Rewrite beginning with: Our homework ...)

  120. Q 103.

    I was reading book when the phone rang. (Rewrite beginning with: The phone rang ...)

  121. Q 104.

    More and more people are interested in recycling nowadays. This is good for the environment. (Combine two sentences, using WHICH)

Answers and explanations are in mode.

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