Introduction to Management 2026 TP. Hồ Chí Minh UFM University

Management - Chapters 1 & 2 Cumulative Exam

100 questions

100 min

Answer key

Exam info

Subject: Introduction to Management
Exam type: University
Questions: 100
Duration: 100 min
Year: 2026
Answers: ✓ With explanations
School: Đại học Tài chính – Marketing (UFM)

Questions (100)

Q 1.
According to the course definition, management is best described as the attainment of organizational goals through which combination of qualities?
- A.
  Effective planning and rigorous auditing only
- B.
  An effective and efficient manner through planning, organizing, leading, and controlling organizational resources
- C.
  Strict obedience to rules and hierarchical command without consideration of efficiency
- D.
  Maximizing profit regardless of how resources are used
Q 2.
The four primary functions of management are:
- A.
  Hiring, training, paying, and firing employees
- B.
  Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling
- C.
  Buying, making, selling, and delivering
- D.
  Visioning, strategizing, motivating, and reporting
Q 3.
Which activity is most closely associated with the planning function of management?
- A.
  Reviewing last quarter's sales reports to identify variances
- B.
  Assigning tasks and delegating authority to team members
- C.
  Identifying goals and deciding how to allocate resources to achieve them
- D.
  Motivating employees through recognition and rewards
Q 4.
When a manager arranges people and tasks into a structure so everyone can work together, which function is being performed?
- A.
  Planning
- B.
  Organizing
- C.
  Leading
- D.
  Controlling
Q 5.
A manager energizes the team, articulates a clear vision, and helps members understand their role in reaching goals. Which function does this describe?
- A.
  Leading
- B.
  Organizing
- C.
  Controlling
- D.
  Planning
Q 6.
Which of the following best describes the controlling function?
- A.
  Setting goals for the next five years
- B.
  Monitoring performance and taking corrective action when needed
- C.
  Hiring and placing employees into roles
- D.
  Inspiring employees with a vision of the future
Q 7.
Efficiency is best defined as:
- A.
  The degree to which an organization achieves its goals
- B.
  The use of minimal resources to produce the desired output
- C.
  Doing the right things regardless of cost
- D.
  The motivation level of employees in the organization
Q 8.
Effectiveness is best defined as:
- A.
  The cost per unit of output
- B.
  The degree to which an organization achieves its goals
- C.
  The number of inputs used to produce outputs
- D.
  The level of detail in a strategic plan
Q 9.
Which statement correctly distinguishes efficiency from effectiveness?
- A.
  Efficiency is about doing the right things; effectiveness is about doing things right
- B.
  Efficiency is doing things right with minimal resources; effectiveness is doing the right things to reach goals
- C.
  Both terms mean exactly the same thing
- D.
  Effectiveness can be measured by output divided by input
Q 10.
A manager produces a high-quality product that customers do not want. According to the efficiency/effectiveness matrix, this situation is:
- A.
  High efficiency / high effectiveness
- B.
  Low efficiency / low effectiveness
- C.
  High efficiency / low effectiveness
- D.
  Low efficiency / high effectiveness
Q 11.
Organizational performance is the organization's ability to attain its goals by using resources in which manner?
- A.
  An efficient and effective manner
- B.
  The fastest possible manner regardless of quality
- C.
  A low-cost manner only
- D.
  A high-profit manner irrespective of effectiveness
Q 12.
Conceptual skills refer to a manager's ability to:
- A.
  Use specific techniques and tools within a functional area
- B.
  See the organization as a whole and understand how parts interrelate
- C.
  Communicate effectively with employees and resolve conflicts
- D.
  Perform accounting calculations accurately
Q 13.
Human skills are best described as the ability to:
- A.
  Use specialized tools and methods in a particular discipline
- B.
  View the organization systemically as a whole
- C.
  Work with, understand, and motivate other people
- D.
  Quantify inputs and outputs using ratios
Q 14.
Technical skills involve:
- A.
  Understanding and proficiency in performing specific tasks
- B.
  Seeing the big picture of how an organization works
- C.
  Working well with people across departments
- D.
  Setting strategic direction for the organization
Q 15.
In general, top managers rely most heavily on which type of skill?
- A.
  Technical skills
- B.
  Human skills
- C.
  Conceptual skills
- D.
  Financial reporting skills
Q 16.
Which statement about skill requirements across management levels is most accurate?
- A.
  Top managers need technical skills more than first-line managers
- B.
  First-line managers need more conceptual skills than top managers
- C.
  First-line managers need strong technical skills; top managers need strong conceptual skills
- D.
  All managers rely on the exact same mix of skills
Q 17.
Human skills are important at every managerial level, but especially critical for which group?
- A.
  Top managers only
- B.
  Middle managers only
- C.
  First-line managers only
- D.
  All levels, but especially for managers who work directly with people
Q 18.
Which is a primary responsibility of top managers?
- A.
  Directly supervising nonmanagerial employees on a daily basis
- B.
  Establishing organizational goals and monitoring middle managers
- C.
  Solving operational problems of individual workers
- D.
  Coordinating the daily tasks of a small work team
Q 19.
Middle managers are primarily responsible for:
- A.
  Setting the overall strategic direction of the organization
- B.
  Supervising first-line managers and finding the best ways to use resources
- C.
  Performing the actual production or service tasks
- D.
  Greeting visitors and signing legal documents
Q 20.
First-line managers are best described as those who:
- A.
  Run the entire organization and report to the board
- B.
  Establish organizational goals for the next ten years
- C.
  Are responsible for the daily supervision of nonmanagerial employees
- D.
  Manage only across functional departments with no people supervision
Q 21.
"Vertical differences" among managers refer to differences in:
- A.
  Functional areas such as marketing or finance
- B.
  Level or rank in the organizational hierarchy
- C.
  Salary levels across countries
- D.
  Type of communication tools used
Q 22.
"Horizontal differences" among managers refer to differences in:
- A.
  Rank within the hierarchy
- B.
  Functional areas or departments at the same level
- C.
  Geographical location only
- D.
  Salary scale only
Q 23.
Which of the following is NOT listed as one of the four reasons to study management?
- A.
  To understand how organizations work and make ethical decisions
- B.
  To learn how good management helps organizations succeed
- C.
  To master a specific technical job like welding
- D.
  To improve decision making in both work and everyday life
Q 24.
Which reason for studying management emphasizes career and earnings potential?
- A.
  Develop management skills that can improve career opportunities and earning potential
- B.
  Understand how organizations work
- C.
  Learn how good management helps organizations succeed
- D.
  Make better decisions in everyday life
Q 25.
Which reason for studying management focuses on decision making in everyday life, not just at work?
- A.
  Develop skills that improve career opportunities
- B.
  Understand how organizations work
- C.
  Learn how good management helps organizations succeed
- D.
  Use management skills to make better decisions in both work and everyday life
Q 26.
According to Mintzberg, the "figurehead" role falls under which category?
- A.
  Decisional
- B.
  Informational
- C.
  Interpersonal
- D.
  Operational
Q 27.
Which activity best fits the leader role in Mintzberg's framework?
- A.
  Signing legal documents on behalf of the company
- B.
  Motivating, training, and counseling subordinates
- C.
  Allocating budget across departments
- D.
  Scanning the web for industry news
Q 28.
When a manager maintains information links both inside and outside the organization through meetings, calls, and emails, which role is being performed?
- A.
  Liaison
- B.
  Spokesperson
- C.
  Disseminator
- D.
  Figurehead
Q 29.
Which role involves seeking and receiving information by scanning periodicals, reports, and personal contacts?
- A.
  Monitor
- B.
  Entrepreneur
- C.
  Disturbance handler
- D.
  Negotiator
Q 30.
Forwarding useful information to other organizational members via memos, reports, and phone calls reflects which role?
- A.
  Disseminator
- B.
  Spokesperson
- C.
  Monitor
- D.
  Liaison
Q 31.
A manager gives a speech to outside stakeholders about the company's plans. Which role is this?
- A.
  Figurehead
- B.
  Spokesperson
- C.
  Liaison
- D.
  Monitor
Q 32.
Which Mintzberg role best describes a manager who initiates improvement projects and delegates the responsibility for new ideas?
- A.
  Resource allocator
- B.
  Disturbance handler
- C.
  Entrepreneur
- D.
  Negotiator
Q 33.
Taking corrective action during conflicts or organizational crises reflects which Mintzberg role?
- A.
  Disturbance handler
- B.
  Monitor
- C.
  Figurehead
- D.
  Spokesperson
Q 34.
Deciding how to schedule, prioritize, and budget resources across the organization reflects which role?
- A.
  Negotiator
- B.
  Entrepreneur
- C.
  Resource allocator
- D.
  Disseminator
Q 35.
Representing a department's interests during the negotiation of union contracts reflects which Mintzberg role?
- A.
  Figurehead
- B.
  Negotiator
- C.
  Liaison
- D.
  Disseminator
Q 36.
Which characteristic best describes the day-to-day work of managers?
- A.
  Long, uninterrupted periods of focused analysis
- B.
  A variety, fragmentation, and brevity of tasks requiring multitasking
- C.
  Strict routine with little variety between days
- D.
  Focus on a single task from start to finish
Q 37.
Compared with an individual performer, a manager is best described as a:
- A.
  Specialist who finishes work through personal effort
- B.
  Generalist who gets things done through others
- C.
  Lone actor who works independently of others
- D.
  Person who avoids networking and relationships
Q 38.
According to the cited research, what is the most common cause of managerial failure?
- A.
  Lack of personal integrity
- B.
  Poor planning practices
- C.
  Ineffective communication skills and practices
- D.
  Inability to lead others
Q 39.
Peter Drucker described managers as those who:
- A.
  Keep all decisions to themselves and avoid delegation
- B.
  Give direction, provide leadership, and decide how to use organizational resources
- C.
  Focus solely on paperwork and procedural compliance
- D.
  Eliminate the human element from decision making
Q 40.
Mary Parker Follett famously defined management as:
- A.
  The art of getting things done through people
- B.
  The science of controlling workers by rules
- C.
  The strict enforcement of hierarchical orders
- D.
  The optimization of cost through automation alone
Q 41.
Which is an example of a "social force" influencing management?
- A.
  The government raises the minimum wage
- B.
  An economic recession causes consumer spending to drop
- C.
  Young employees value flexible working hours and remote work
- D.
  Stricter environmental rules require new factory equipment
Q 42.
An increase in the minimum wage is best classified as which type of force?
- A.
  Social force
- B.
  Political force
- C.
  Economic force
- D.
  Technological force
Q 43.
Which of the following best illustrates an economic force affecting management?
- A.
  A preference for eco-friendly products
- B.
  Strict environmental regulations for factories
- C.
  An economic downturn that increases unemployment and reduces luxury spending
- D.
  Higher demand for healthy food over fast food
Q 44.
Which management perspective dominated the late 19th to early 20th century and emphasized efficiency?
- A.
  Classical perspective
- B.
  Humanistic perspective
- C.
  Contingency view
- D.
  Total quality management
Q 45.
Frederick Winslow Taylor is best known for:
- A.
  Bureaucratic organization
- B.
  Scientific management
- C.
  Administrative principles
- D.
  Theory Y
Q 46.
Taylor's scientific management assumed that workers could be treated like:
- A.
  Highly creative partners in problem solving
- B.
  Machines whose physical and mental "gears" could be recalibrated
- C.
  Owners of the means of production
- D.
  Complex social systems not amenable to study
Q 47.
Taylor's Bethlehem Steel example is best remembered for showing that:
- A.
  Workers were naturally lazy and needed punishment
- B.
  Standardized methods with incentives dramatically raised productivity
- C.
  Speeding up work always harmed quality
- D.
  Workers should be excluded from suggesting improvements
Q 48.
Henry Gantt is best known for developing which tool?
- A.
  Theory Y
- B.
  The bureaucratic hierarchy
- C.
  The Gantt chart for scheduling work
- D.
  Hawthorne interviews
Q 49.
Lillian Gilbreth is best known for:
- A.
  Founding Theory X assumptions
- B.
  Adding a human component to scientific management studies
- C.
  Writing the 14 principles of management
- D.
  Conducting the Hawthorne Studies
Q 50.
Max Weber introduced the idea of a bureaucracy based on:
- A.
  Personal family relationships among owners
- B.
  Rational authority, competence, and technical qualifications
- C.
  Charismatic leadership of a single visionary
- D.
  Random selection of employees for each role
Q 51.
A typical criticism of bureaucracy is its association with:
- A.
  Innovative cultures and adaptability
- B.
  Endless red tape and procedures
- C.
  Lack of formal rules
- D.
  Heavy reliance on personal relationships in hiring
Q 52.
Henri Fayol is most closely associated with:
- A.
  Bureaucratic management
- B.
  Scientific management
- C.
  Administrative principles / general management
- D.
  Human relations movement
Q 53.
Fayol's original list of management functions included all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
  Planning
- B.
  Commanding
- C.
  Innovating
- D.
  Controlling
Q 54.
Fayol's principle of "unity of command" means that:
- A.
  Each department should pursue its own unique goals
- B.
  Each employee should receive orders from only one supervisor
- C.
  Companies should centralize all decisions at the top
- D.
  Work should be divided among specialized workers
Q 55.
Which Fayol principle suggests that each employee should be treated fairly and respectfully?
- A.
  Discipline
- B.
  Equity
- C.
  Scalar chain
- D.
  Remuneration
Q 56.
Fayol's principle of "esprit de corps" emphasizes:
- A.
  Strict discipline and punishment
- B.
  Paying higher wages than competitors
- C.
  Building trust and team unity to motivate employees
- D.
  Centralizing all decision making
Q 57.
Compared with scientific management, which area does the management science perspective emphasize?
- A.
  Emotional motivation and group belonging
- B.
  Mathematical and quantitative techniques for decision making
- C.
  Family-based organizations
- D.
  Strict obedience without analysis
Q 58.
Which of the following best describes the focus of the management science perspective?
- A.
  Improving worker satisfaction through social relationships
- B.
  Using mathematics to solve business and operational problems
- C.
  Building organizational structures based on rational authority
- D.
  Eliminating formal control systems
Q 59.
Peter Drucker is best associated with:
- A.
  Founding the human relations movement
- B.
  Bureaucratic theory
- C.
  Advancing management science and the study of management
- D.
  Developing Theory X
Q 60.
Operations research, operations management, and MIS are all components of which perspective?
- A.
  Classical perspective
- B.
  Humanistic perspective
- C.
  Management science perspective
- D.
  Bureaucratic perspective
Q 61.
Which best describes the central concern of the humanistic management perspective?
- A.
  Optimizing output using mathematical models
- B.
  Meeting human needs to improve motivation and effectiveness
- C.
  Designing rigid hierarchical structures
- D.
  Maximizing shareholder return at any cost
Q 62.
Mary Parker Follett is best described as:
- A.
  The mother of modern management
- B.
  The father of scientific management
- C.
  The founder of Theory Y
- D.
  The originator of bureaucratic structures
Q 63.
Chester Barnard emphasized which concept, suggesting that workers have free will to accept or reject orders?
- A.
  Unity of command
- B.
  Acceptance of authority
- C.
  One best way
- D.
  Bureaucratic impersonality
Q 64.
The Hawthorne Studies are most famous for showing that:
- A.
  Workers always produce more when paid more
- B.
  Better social treatment and group dynamics raised productivity
- C.
  Lighting was the only factor that mattered
- D.
  Workers are fundamentally lazy without supervision
Q 65.
Elton Mayo is best known as a key figure in which movement?
- A.
  Scientific management
- B.
  Human relations movement
- C.
  Administrative management
- D.
  Theory Y approach
Q 66.
Which of the following is a key conclusion drawn from the relay assembly test room experiment?
- A.
  Improved lighting alone explained productivity gains
- B.
  Sense of importance and group relationships drove productivity and satisfaction
- C.
  Workers perform best with strict supervision only
- D.
  Rest breaks always lowered output
Q 67.
The Human Resources perspective differs from the human relations movement primarily by focusing on:
- A.
  Improving informal social relationships only
- B.
  Developing and using employee abilities, motivation, and full potential
- C.
  Applying mathematical models to workforce data
- D.
  Designing bureaucratic rules for hiring
Q 68.
Abraham Maslow is best known for developing:
- A.
  Theory X and Theory Y
- B.
  The hierarchy of human needs
- C.
  Principles of bureaucracy
- D.
  Time and motion studies
Q 69.
A manager who believes that workers inherently dislike work and must be coerced reflects:
- A.
  Theory X assumptions
- B.
  Theory Y assumptions
- C.
  Human relations assumptions
- D.
  Contingency assumptions
Q 70.
A manager who believes employees can be creative, accept responsibility, and exercise self-direction reflects:
- A.
  Theory X assumptions
- B.
  Theory Y assumptions
- C.
  Bureaucratic principles
- D.
  Scientific management
Q 71.
Which statement about Theory X is most accurate?
- A.
  Workers want responsibility and creativity
- B.
  Work is as natural as play for most people
- C.
  Most people prefer to be directed and seek security over ambition
- D.
  Most people will exercise self-direction toward objectives they support
Q 72.
Which statement about Theory Y is most accurate?
- A.
  Invention and creativity are narrowly distributed in the population
- B.
  Most people must be coerced to put forth adequate effort
- C.
  External control is the only means for bringing about effort
- D.
  The capacity for imagination and creativity is widely, not narrowly, distributed
Q 73.
Douglas McGregor's main contribution to management was:
- A.
  Classifying managers into Theory X and Theory Y types
- B.
  Inventing the Gantt chart
- C.
  Creating the hierarchy of needs
- D.
  Designing the Hawthorne studies
Q 74.
The behavioral sciences approach draws mainly from which disciplines?
- A.
  Physics, chemistry, and biology
- B.
  Sociology, psychology, anthropology, and economics
- C.
  Mathematics, statistics, and operations research
- D.
  Engineering and computer science only
Q 75.
"Organizational development" is best associated with which perspective?
- A.
  Bureaucratic management
- B.
  Behavioral sciences approach
- C.
  Scientific management
- D.
  Management science
Q 76.
How does the human relations movement differ from the human resources perspective?
- A.
  Human relations ignores people; HR focuses only on machines
- B.
  Human relations emphasizes social relationships, while HR focuses on motivation and developing abilities
- C.
  Both are exactly the same
- D.
  HR focuses on social ties; human relations focuses on pay scales
Q 77.
Systems theory views an organization as:
- A.
  A collection of independent parts with no interaction
- B.
  A set of interrelated parts functioning as a whole to achieve a common purpose
- C.
  A hierarchy without feedback
- D.
  A static entity that never changes
Q 78.
"Subsystems" in systems theory are best described as:
- A.
  Independent businesses outside the organization
- B.
  Standalone units that never cooperate
- C.
  Interdependent parts of a system that cooperate with one another
- D.
  Mathematical formulas only
Q 79.
Synergy in a system means:
- A.
  That the whole system performs worse than the sum of its parts
- B.
  That parts work together so the whole achieves more than the sum of parts
- C.
  That competition among parts is the main goal
- D.
  That departments work in isolation
Q 80.
Systems thinking requires managers to:
- A.
  Focus only on their own department
- B.
  See both the parts and the changing interactions among them
- C.
  Ignore feedback loops and environmental changes
- D.
  Apply only mathematical optimization
Q 81.
The contingency view of management holds that:
- A.
  There is one best way to manage in all situations
- B.
  Successful management depends on the situation
- C.
  All organizations should use identical structures
- D.
  Workers should always be treated identically
Q 82.
What is the core insight of the contingency view?
- A.
  Always follow Fayol's 14 principles
- B.
  Different situations require different management approaches
- C.
  Workers prefer one universal leadership style
- D.
  Quality is everyone's responsibility under one rule
Q 83.
Total Quality Management (TQM) is most associated with which pioneer?
- A.
  W. Edwards Deming
- B.
  Peter Senge
- C.
  Mary Parker Follett
- D.
  Max Weber
Q 84.
Which of the following is one of the four key elements of TQM emphasized in the text?
- A.
  Strict hierarchy without teamwork
- B.
  Focus on the customer
- C.
  Reducing employee involvement
- D.
  One-time product inspection
Q 85.
In TQM, "continuous improvement" means:
- A.
  Making changes only when quality drops dramatically
- B.
  Constantly seeking better ways to improve products and processes
- C.
  Completing improvements once and stopping
- D.
  Limiting quality efforts to senior management only
Q 86.
In TQM, the focus on the customer means that:
- A.
  Customers should design the products themselves
- B.
  Quality is defined by what satisfies the customer
- C.
  Customers must purchase every product made
- D.
  Customer feedback is irrelevant
Q 87.
In a TQM context, "benchmarking" refers to:
- A.
  Comparing an organization's practices against the best in the industry
- B.
  Setting wages based on seniority
- C.
  Hiring only from certain schools
- D.
  Scheduling employee shifts
Q 88.
Which TQM element emphasizes that quality should involve people at every level of the organization?
- A.
  Centralized decision making
- B.
  Employee involvement
- C.
  Bureaucratic rules
- D.
  Theory X supervision
Q 89.
The concept of the "learning organization" is most associated with:
- A.
  Peter Senge
- B.
  Henri Fayol
- C.
  W. Edwards Deming
- D.
  Frederick Taylor
Q 90.
In a learning organization, who is encouraged to identify and solve problems?
- A.
  Only senior executives
- B.
  Only middle managers
- C.
  All employees
- D.
  Outside consultants only
Q 91.
Supply Chain Management (SCM) primarily helps organizations to:
- A.
  Reduce employee turnover only
- B.
  Coordinate and integrate the flow of goods, information, and finances from suppliers to customers
- C.
  Eliminate every external relationship
- D.
  Design internal organizational charts
Q 92.
Customer Relationship Management (CRM) focuses on:
- A.
  Building and managing long-term relationships with customers
- B.
  Manufacturing only
- C.
  Reducing product variety
- D.
  Eliminating supplier partnerships
Q 93.
Outsourcing in modern organizations typically refers to:
- A.
  Hiring more full-time employees internally
- B.
  Contracting outside parties to perform activities previously done in-house
- C.
  Building entirely new factories
- D.
  Improving product design internally
Q 94.
Which technology trend helps managers gather and analyze large amounts of customer data to better understand behavior?
- A.
  Big data analytics
- B.
  Standardized forms only
- C.
  Manual paper records
- D.
  Random sampling without analysis
Q 95.
Platform-based organizations often rely on:
- A.
  Centralized manual factories
- B.
  Digital platforms and the sharing economy to deliver value
- C.
  Eliminating customer interaction
- D.
  Avoiding any use of technology
Q 96.
A "people-driven workplace" emphasizes which of the following?
- A.
  Top-down, autocratic decision making
- B.
  Decentralizing power and giving decision authority to those closest to the work
- C.
  Reducing employee energy and creativity at work
- D.
  Ignoring generational changes in the workforce
Q 97.
According to the chapter's tension framework, the "Things of Production" focus emphasizes:
- A.
  Personal growth and self-actualization of workers
- B.
  Production efficiency through organization design, workflow, and control
- C.
  Open-ended team coaching and empowerment
- D.
  Customer relationship management software
Q 98.
In contrast to the "Things of Production" focus, "Humanity of Production" emphasizes:
- A.
  Maximum automation regardless of morale
- B.
  Meeting human needs for greater motivation and engagement
- C.
  Strict division of labor only
- D.
  Eliminating all social interaction at work
Q 99.
A student masters a new language by manually copying an entire dictionary into a notebook; they achieve fluency, but the process is far more labor-intensive than modern methods. This is best described as:
- A.
  Efficient and effective
- B.
  Effective but not efficient
- C.
  Efficient but not effective
- D.
  Neither efficient nor effective
Q 100.
A factory uses state-of-the-art automated systems to produce thousands of high-quality pagers in record time with zero waste, despite no modern market demand for pagers. This best illustrates:
- A.
  High efficiency but low effectiveness
- B.
  High effectiveness but low efficiency
- C.
  High efficiency and high effectiveness
- D.
  Low efficiency and high effectiveness

Answers and explanations are in mode.