Managerial Decision Making TP. Hồ Chí Minh UFM University

Managerial Decision Making — Medium-Difficulty Exam

100 questions
100 min
Answer key

Exam info

Subject
Managerial Decision Making
Exam type
University
Questions
100
Duration
100 min
Answers
✓ With explanations

Questions (100)

  1. Q 1.

    In a management context, which statement best defines decision making?

    • A.

      Identifying a problem or opportunity and taking action to resolve or exploit it

    • B.

      Selecting the only available alternative without investigating the situation

    • C.

      Collecting information and reporting it to senior managers

    • D.

      Carrying out a policy that has already been approved

  2. Q 2.

    Why is effective decision making considered a vital part of good management?

    • A.

      Managerial choices strongly influence organizational performance, growth, and survival

    • B.

      It eliminates the need for managerial leadership and communication

    • C.

      It ensures that every decision is entirely free of uncertainty

    • D.

      It replaces the need to evaluate results after implementation

  3. Q 3.

    Which statement most accurately defines a decision?

    • A.

      A choice made from a set of available alternatives

    • B.

      Any information a manager receives about an organization

    • C.

      A rule designed for situations that recur frequently

    • D.

      The result obtained after a plan has been implemented

  4. Q 4.

    Which situation is the clearest example of a programmed decision?

    • A.

      Processing the company's recurring payroll according to an established procedure

    • B.

      Choosing a long-term strategy for entry into an unfamiliar country

    • C.

      Responding to a sudden crisis that has no established operating procedure

    • D.

      Creating an innovation policy when the organization's goals remain unclear

  5. Q 5.

    Which situation is most likely to require a nonprogrammed decision?

    • A.

      Selecting a supplier from an approved list under the standard purchasing policy

    • B.

      Reordering standard materials when inventory reaches the established reorder point

    • C.

      Determining how to respond to an unprecedented product-safety crisis

    • D.

      Developing a new market-entry strategy when reliable competitor information is unavailable

  6. Q 6.

    Which statement best describes a condition of certainty?

    • A.

      The information needed to evaluate the alternatives is available

    • B.

      The manager knows the goal but cannot identify any feasible alternative

    • C.

      Future results depend on events that management cannot control

    • D.

      Stakeholders interpret the organization's purpose in conflicting ways

  7. Q 7.

    Which description most closely matches a condition of risk?

    • A.

      The future outcome is subject to chance even though the manager has relevant information

    • B.

      All information needed for the decision is completely available

    • C.

      The organization's goals are disputed by several stakeholder groups

    • D.

      The manager lacks information about future events and cannot forecast their outcomes

  8. Q 8.

    A company has reliable historical sales data but cannot obtain information about a competitor's likely future strategy. Which condition best describes this decision environment?

    • A.

      Certainty

    • B.

      Ambiguity based mainly on conflicting organizational goals

    • C.

      Uncertainty

    • D.

      A programmed decision with no need for analysis

  9. Q 9.

    Which situation most clearly represents ambiguity and conflict?

    • A.

      A manager has complete cost data for three equipment options

    • B.

      A team knows the operational cause of a production delay

    • C.

      Departments disagree about the objective that a new project should pursue

    • D.

      Managers cannot agree on what the problem is or which organizational objective should guide the choice

  10. Q 10.

    Why do managers seek additional information before making a decision?

    • A.

      To compare alternatives more effectively and reduce uncertainty

    • B.

      To avoid responsibility for implementing the eventual choice

    • C.

      To guarantee that every possible future event can be predicted

    • D.

      To turn a nonprogrammed decision into a programmed one

  11. Q 11.

    A retail chain routinely replenishes popular products using a fixed inventory rule. This is an example of a:

    • A.

      Programmed decision

    • B.

      Nonprogrammed decision

    • C.

      Political model decision

    • D.

      Uncertain administrative decision

  12. Q 12.

    Managers must design a completely new response to a rare regulatory change that affects several business units. The decision is best classified as:

    • A.

      Programmed because management can use the organization's decision-making process

    • B.

      Nonprogrammed because the situation is unique and poorly structured

    • C.

      Certain because managers have observed the regulation for many years

    • D.

      Purely administrative because the change follows a legal process

  13. Q 13.

    Which pairing correctly distinguishes certainty from uncertainty?

    • A.

      Certainty means relevant information is available; uncertainty means relevant information is incomplete

    • B.

      Certainty means goals are disputed; uncertainty means goals are agreed upon

    • C.

      Certainty means outcomes are controlled; uncertainty means outcomes cannot occur

    • D.

      Certainty means decisions are repeated; uncertainty means decisions are unique

  14. Q 14.

    Which pairing correctly distinguishes risk from uncertainty?

    • A.

      Risk involves outcomes subject to chance; uncertainty involves incomplete information about future events

    • B.

      Risk means all information is missing; uncertainty means all information is available

    • C.

      Risk means the goals are unclear; uncertainty means the alternatives are clear

    • D.

      Risk means the problem recurs; uncertainty means the problem is unique

  15. Q 15.

    Under which condition is it easiest to make a programmed decision?

    • A.

      The situation recurs regularly and an established rule can be applied

    • B.

      The problem has never occurred before and no alternatives can be identified

    • C.

      Stakeholders cannot agree on the organization's goals

    • D.

      The manager lacks information about every possible future outcome

  16. Q 16.

    Why do nonprogrammed decisions usually require more effort to develop alternatives?

    • A.

      Their situations are unique or unstructured, so standard courses of action may not apply

    • B.

      They can only be made by senior executives

    • C.

      They never involve implementation or feedback

    • D.

      They require a single objectively correct solution

  17. Q 17.

    Which statement best summarizes the classical, or rational, decision-making model?

    • A.

      A logically rational manager evaluates known alternatives under known criteria to maximize organizational goals

    • B.

      A manager accepts the first workable solution because information and time are limited

    • C.

      Coalition members negotiate goals because their interests are incompatible

    • D.

      A manager relies on immediate experience without consciously comparing alternatives

  18. Q 18.

    Which assumption belongs to the rational decision-making model?

    • A.

      The decision maker's goals are clearly established and broadly accepted

    • B.

      Stakeholder groups bargain until they force a political compromise

    • C.

      The manager must choose the first alternative that meets minimum requirements

    • D.

      The manager can examine every possible alternative without resource constraints

  19. Q 19.

    What does the rational model assume about the conditions surrounding a decision?

    • A.

      The manager can strive for certainty and calculate the consequences of alternatives

    • B.

      The manager must accept incomplete information without attempting to improve it

    • C.

      The organization has only one interest group with no competing goals

    • D.

      The final choice will be determined primarily through political negotiation

  20. Q 20.

    In the rational decision-making model, what is assumed about criteria for evaluating alternatives?

    • A.

      They are identified and known before the alternatives are compared

    • B.

      They emerge only after a coalition has negotiated a compromise

    • C.

      They consist solely of whatever information happens to be available

    • D.

      They are intentionally kept vague to preserve managerial flexibility

  21. Q 21.

    What does the rational decision maker attempt to achieve?

    • A.

      The maximum possible outcome for the organization's goals

    • B.

      The first alternative that satisfies minimum criteria

    • C.

      The option favored by the largest informal coalition

    • D.

      The alternative requiring the least managerial effort

  22. Q 22.

    How does the administrative model differ in purpose from the rational model?

    • A.

      It describes how managers actually decide when facing human and environmental limitations

    • B.

      It prescribes the ideal procedure that every rational manager should always follow

    • C.

      It explains decisions solely through negotiation among competing interest groups

    • D.

      It assumes that managers possess complete information and unlimited time

  23. Q 23.

    What does bounded rationality mean in the administrative model?

    • A.

      Managers have limited information, time, cognitive capacity, and other resources

    • B.

      Managers are prohibited from using logic or quantitative analysis

    • C.

      Managers are permitted to consider only one alternative

    • D.

      Managers must accept any outcome regardless of whether it meets objectives

  24. Q 24.

    A manager selects the first proposal that meets the minimum acceptable performance standard and stops searching. This behavior is called:

    • A.

      Satisficing

    • B.

      Maximizing

    • C.

      Bargaining

    • D.

      Certainty

  25. Q 25.

    Why is the search for alternatives limited in the administrative model?

    • A.

      Managers face constraints involving information, time, cognitive ability, and organizational resources

    • B.

      Managers are forbidden from considering new approaches

    • C.

      Every organization has already evaluated all possible solutions

    • D.

      Managers always prefer political negotiation to analysis

  26. Q 26.

    Which statement best defines intuition as used in the administrative model?

    • A.

      A rapid grasp of a decision situation based on experience without conscious analysis

    • B.

      A detailed calculation of every alternative's expected monetary value

    • C.

      A compromise reached after extended negotiation with stakeholders

    • D.

      A rule automatically applied to a recurring organizational problem

  27. Q 27.

    Which statement about goals is consistent with the administrative model?

    • A.

      Goals are often vague and lack broad consensus

    • B.

      Goals are always clear, measurable, and universally accepted

    • C.

      Goals are determined only by external government regulators

    • D.

      Goals do not influence the choice among alternatives

  28. Q 28.

    For which category of decisions is the political model especially useful?

    • A.

      Nonprogrammed decisions involving complex or disputed issues

    • B.

      Routine decisions governed entirely by a fixed policy

    • C.

      Decisions in which all facts and outcomes are completely known

    • D.

      Only personnel decisions involving a single employee

  29. Q 29.

    Which assumption is fundamental to the political model?

    • A.

      Organizations contain participants with diverse and sometimes conflicting interests

    • B.

      Every participant has exactly the same objective and information

    • C.

      Managers can identify and evaluate every relevant dimension of a problem

    • D.

      Decisions are made without discussion or negotiation

  30. Q 30.

    How does the political model treat information?

    • A.

      As ambiguous, incomplete, and interpreted differently by interested parties

    • B.

      As complete, objective, and sufficient for calculating the optimum

    • C.

      As irrelevant because decisions are made entirely through intuition

    • D.

      As available only after the final alternative has been implemented

  31. Q 31.

    What does the political model assume about managers' ability to understand every dimension of a problem?

    • A.

      They generally lack the resources needed to identify and analyze every dimension

    • B.

      They can identify every dimension if they use the rational model

    • C.

      They need not understand the problem because goals are always imposed externally

    • D.

      They always understand every problem but disagree only over implementation details

  32. Q 32.

    How are goals and alternatives often settled in the political model?

    • A.

      Through debate, bargaining, and negotiation among coalition members

    • B.

      By applying a fixed rule without discussion

    • C.

      By choosing the first alternative that meets a minimum threshold

    • D.

      By mathematically calculating the only optimum under complete information

  33. Q 33.

    Which statement correctly compares the classical and administrative models?

    • A.

      The classical model seeks the optimum, whereas the administrative model often settles for a satisfactory solution

    • B.

      The classical model assumes vague goals, whereas the administrative model assumes complete agreement

    • C.

      The classical model relies on coalition bargaining, whereas the administrative model requires full information

    • D.

      Both models assume that the manager has unlimited time and information

  34. Q 34.

    Which statement correctly compares the administrative and political models?

    • A.

      The administrative model emphasizes constrained satisficing, whereas the political model emphasizes bargaining among competing interests

    • B.

      The administrative model assumes full information, whereas the political model assumes complete certainty

    • C.

      The administrative model requires maximizing, whereas the political model permits only programmed decisions

    • D.

      The administrative model ignores organizational factors, whereas the political model ignores conflict

  35. Q 35.

    A manager faces a clearly defined problem, has complete information about three alternatives, and uses predetermined criteria to identify the best option. Which model is being used?

    • A.

      Classical model

    • B.

      Administrative model

    • C.

      Political model

    • D.

      Programmed decision model

  36. Q 36.

    Several departments disagree about the priorities of a new project, and senior managers must negotiate a common objective before choosing a course of action. Which model best explains the process?

    • A.

      Classical model

    • B.

      Administrative model

    • C.

      Political model

    • D.

      Certainty model

  37. Q 37.

    A manager examines only three practical options because time and information are limited, then accepts the first one that meets minimum performance standards. This decision best reflects the:

    • A.

      Administrative model

    • B.

      Classical model

    • C.

      Political model

    • D.

      Programmed decision

  38. Q 38.

    Which statement accurately contrasts rational choice with administrative choice?

    • A.

      Rational choice aims for the maximum outcome under ideal assumptions, while administrative choice seeks an acceptable outcome under practical constraints

    • B.

      Rational choice uses intuition, while administrative choice uses only statistical analysis

    • C.

      Rational choice is descriptive of actual managers, while administrative choice describes an ideal decision

    • D.

      Rational choice ignores organizational goals, while administrative choice accepts any outcome

  39. Q 39.

    Why is the classical decision-making model often described as an ideal rather than a complete description of actual managerial behavior?

    • A.

      It assumes clarity, calculability, rationality, and goal consensus that managers do not always possess

    • B.

      It contains no logical sequence for comparing alternatives

    • C.

      It applies only to decisions made by lower-level employees

    • D.

      It assumes that managers never communicate before deciding

  40. Q 40.

    Why does the political model resemble the environment in which managers actually operate?

    • A.

      It recognizes diverse interests, incomplete information, resource constraints, and negotiation

    • B.

      It assumes that all decisions can be calculated with perfect certainty

    • C.

      It assumes that every problem has one objectively superior solution

    • D.

      It removes the need for managerial persuasion during implementation

  41. Q 41.

    What is the first step in the six-step managerial decision-making process?

    • A.

      Recognizing that a decision is required

    • B.

      Evaluating the results of the previous alternative

    • C.

      Implementing the selected course of action

    • D.

      Diagnosing the causes of an established problem

  42. Q 42.

    In the decision-making process, when is a problem present?

    • A.

      When organizational performance falls below an established goal

    • B.

      When the organization discovers a way to exceed its current goals

    • C.

      Whenever several feasible alternatives exist

    • D.

      After a selected alternative has been implemented

  43. Q 43.

    Which situation is an opportunity rather than a problem in the decision-making process?

    • A.

      Current sales are 10 percent below the annual target

    • B.

      A new technology could enable the organization to exceed its present output goal

    • C.

      A customer complaint indicates that a promised service was not delivered

    • D.

      A product line is generating losses despite meeting its original sales target

  44. Q 44.

    What is the purpose of diagnosis in managerial decision making?

    • A.

      To understand the current situation and analyze the causes of the problem

    • B.

      To persuade employees to accept the solution selected by management

    • C.

      To choose the alternative with the greatest expected benefit

    • D.

      To communicate the results of a completed project

  45. Q 45.

    Which set of questions is most appropriate for diagnosing a managerial problem?

    • A.

      What is the disequilibrium, when and where did it occur, how did it occur, and how urgent and interconnected is it?

    • B.

      Which solution has the highest expected monetary value?

    • C.

      Who should be appointed to lead the project after the decision is made?

    • D.

      Did the chosen alternative meet last year's performance standard?

  46. Q 46.

    A manager discovers that two activities both contribute to a delay and wants to determine which activity had the greater effect. Which step does this activity most directly support?

    • A.

      Diagnosis and analysis of causes

    • B.

      Development of alternatives

    • C.

      Implementation

    • D.

      Evaluation and feedback

  47. Q 47.

    What is the central activity in the development-of-alternatives step?

    • A.

      Generating a set of possible solutions to the diagnosed problem

    • B.

      Determining why the problem first occurred

    • C.

      Assigning resources to the solution already selected

    • D.

      Measuring whether the solution met the objective

  48. Q 48.

    Why are feasible alternatives generally easier to identify for programmed decisions?

    • A.

      Established procedures already specify how recurring situations should be handled

    • B.

      Programmed decisions never face performance problems

    • C.

      Managers are prohibited from using creative approaches

    • D.

      All possible future outcomes are known with certainty

  49. Q 49.

    In a nonprogrammed decision, developing alternatives often requires:

    • A.

      Creating new courses of action because existing procedures are inadequate

    • B.

      Applying the same solution that was used during the previous occurrence

    • C.

      Rejecting all alternatives that differ from the current procedure

    • D.

      Avoiding discussion with people who understand the problem

  50. Q 50.

    What occurs during the selection-of-the-desired-alternative step?

    • A.

      The manager chooses the most promising course of action from the alternatives

    • B.

      The manager first recognizes that a problem or opportunity exists

    • C.

      The manager assigns people and resources to carry out the decision

    • D.

      The manager determines whether the results met expectations

  51. Q 51.

    Which criterion should guide the selection of an alternative?

    • A.

      Its fit with the organization's goals and objectives

    • B.

      Its ability to avoid all managerial discussion

    • C.

      The personal preference of the manager regardless of organizational goals

    • D.

      The fact that it requires no monitoring after implementation

  52. Q 52.

    When selecting among alternatives, managers should generally prefer an option that:

    • A.

      Creates the greatest expected benefit with the least risk and uncertainty

    • B.

      Requires the most resources regardless of its expected results

    • C.

      Eliminates the possibility of any negative outcome

    • D.

      Is selected before any feasible alternatives are identified

  53. Q 53.

    What does implementation of a chosen alternative involve?

    • A.

      Turning the selected course of action into coordinated organizational action

    • B.

      Generating additional alternatives without choosing one

    • C.

      Determining whether the organization met its established goals

    • D.

      Establishing that a decision requirement exists

  54. Q 54.

    Which managerial abilities are especially important for successfully implementing a decision?

    • A.

      Managerial, administrative, and persuasive abilities

    • B.

      Only financial calculation abilities

    • C.

      Only legal research abilities

    • D.

      No managerial abilities, because implementation is automatic

  55. Q 55.

    Which three elements support effective implementation of a managerial decision?

    • A.

      Communication, motivation, and leadership

    • B.

      Certainty, ambiguity, and conflict

    • C.

      Diagnosis, development, and selection

    • D.

      Anchoring, framing, and overconfidence

  56. Q 56.

    What is the primary purpose of the evaluation-and-feedback step?

    • A.

      To determine how well the alternative was implemented and whether it succeeded

    • B.

      To avoid using the chosen alternative again

    • C.

      To create the original set of alternatives

    • D.

      To decide which goals the organization should pursue before any action

  57. Q 57.

    Why is feedback described as a continuous process?

    • A.

      Managers must keep monitoring results and use information to improve action

    • B.

      Managers must continuously reopen the original decision without any evaluation

    • C.

      Feedback occurs only after every future alternative has been implemented

    • D.

      Continuous feedback replaces the need for implementation

  58. Q 58.

    For a large problem, why may managers implement several alternatives in sequence?

    • A.

      Sequential implementation allows the organization to learn from each attempt before proceeding

    • B.

      It eliminates the need to diagnose the underlying problem

    • C.

      It guarantees that each alternative will improve performance

    • D.

      It is required for all programmed decisions

  59. Q 59.

    Which statement correctly distinguishes decision recognition from diagnosis?

    • A.

      Recognition notices that a decision is needed; diagnosis investigates the nature and causes of the situation

    • B.

      Recognition identifies causes; diagnosis selects the best alternative

    • C.

      Recognition implements a decision; diagnosis evaluates its results

    • D.

      Recognition and diagnosis are identical activities

  60. Q 60.

    Which statement correctly distinguishes development of alternatives from selection?

    • A.

      Development creates possible courses of action; selection chooses among them

    • B.

      Development evaluates results; selection diagnoses causes

    • C.

      Development assigns resources; selection communicates the decision

    • D.

      Development occurs only after evaluation; selection occurs only after recognition

  61. Q 61.

    Which statement correctly distinguishes selection from implementation?

    • A.

      Selection determines the preferred alternative; implementation carries it out

    • B.

      Selection generates new options; implementation ranks them

    • C.

      Selection determines causes; implementation assigns resources

    • D.

      Selection assesses final performance; implementation creates alternatives

  62. Q 62.

    Which statement correctly distinguishes implementation from evaluation?

    • A.

      Implementation executes the decision; evaluation judges the execution and its results

    • B.

      Implementation selects an alternative; evaluation generates alternatives

    • C.

      Implementation diagnoses causes; evaluation recognizes the problem

    • D.

      Implementation and evaluation are the same activity

  63. Q 63.

    Why can the managerial decision-making process be viewed as a cycle?

    • A.

      Feedback from evaluating one decision can reveal new problems and opportunities

    • B.

      Every organization repeats exactly the same decision without changes

    • C.

      The six steps occur simultaneously and have no sequence

    • D.

      Implementation must always return directly to development without evaluation

  64. Q 64.

    A manager notices that sales have fallen below the established target. Which decision-making step is being performed?

    • A.

      Recognition of a decision requirement

    • B.

      Development of alternatives

    • C.

      Selection of the desired alternative

    • D.

      Evaluation and feedback

  65. Q 65.

    Managers interview employees and map the production process to determine why deliveries are late. Which step are they performing?

    • A.

      Diagnosis and analysis of causes

    • B.

      Selection of the desired alternative

    • C.

      Implementation of the chosen alternative

    • D.

      Evaluation and feedback

  66. Q 66.

    After diagnosing a shortage of warehouse workers, a team conducts a brainstorming workshop and records several possible staffing responses. Which step is occurring?

    • A.

      Development of alternatives

    • B.

      Diagnosis and analysis of causes

    • C.

      Evaluation and feedback

    • D.

      Recognition of a decision requirement

  67. Q 67.

    A manager compares three staffing alternatives against cost, quality, and speed objectives and chooses one. Which step is being completed?

    • A.

      Selection of the desired alternative

    • B.

      Recognition of a decision requirement

    • C.

      Diagnosis and analysis of causes

    • D.

      Evaluation and feedback

  68. Q 68.

    After selecting a new supplier, a manager assigns responsibility, allocates funds, and communicates the decision to employees. Which step is occurring?

    • A.

      Implementation

    • B.

      Diagnosis

    • C.

      Development of alternatives

    • D.

      Evaluation and feedback

  69. Q 69.

    Three months after launching a new service, a manager compares actual customer satisfaction with the original objective. Which step is being performed?

    • A.

      Evaluation and feedback

    • B.

      Recognition of a decision requirement

    • C.

      Development of alternatives

    • D.

      Selection of the desired alternative

  70. Q 70.

    After a pilot project produces disappointing results, a manager revises the project based on customer feedback and launches another version. This activity primarily demonstrates:

    • A.

      Evaluation and feedback feeding into further implementation

    • B.

      Development of alternatives without any prior implementation

    • C.

      Programmed decision making based on a recurring rule

    • D.

      Political negotiation among coalition members

  71. Q 71.

    A manager allows the first estimate heard in a meeting to anchor all later judgments, even though more evidence is available. Which bias is operating?

    • A.

      Anchoring bias

    • B.

      Status quo bias

    • C.

      Overconfidence bias

    • D.

      Satisficing

  72. Q 72.

    A manager continues funding a failing project because abandoning it would make an earlier investment appear wasteful. This is an example of:

    • A.

      Escalation of commitment

    • B.

      Confirmation bias

    • C.

      Framing bias

    • D.

      Bounded rationality

  73. Q 73.

    A manager selectively attends to evidence supporting a preferred strategy and dismisses contradictory data. Which bias is most evident?

    • A.

      Confirmation bias

    • B.

      Anchoring bias

    • C.

      Status quo bias

    • D.

      Programmed decision making

  74. Q 74.

    A manager keeps an ineffective process because changing it would disrupt established routines, even though a better alternative is available. Which bias is illustrated?

    • A.

      Status quo bias

    • B.

      Overconfidence bias

    • C.

      Anchoring bias

    • D.

      Political model

  75. Q 75.

    Which behavior most clearly demonstrates problem-framing bias?

    • A.

      Choosing differently depending on whether the identical issue is presented as a gain or a loss

    • B.

      Accepting the first proposal that meets minimum criteria

    • C.

      Using an existing policy for a recurring procedure

    • D.

      Consulting colleagues before making a complex choice

  76. Q 76.

    Which situation is an example of overconfidence bias?

    • A.

      A manager predicts a project will succeed with virtually no possibility of delay

    • B.

      A manager accepts a solution because it meets the minimum acceptance standard

    • C.

      A manager continues using a procedure because it has always worked in the past

    • D.

      A manager seeks a second estimate before accepting a consultant's forecast

  77. Q 77.

    A consultant first mentions that a new product will cost 500,000 dollars. After that estimate, the entire team rejects options below 450,000 dollars even though the original figure was unsupported. Which bias is illustrated?

    • A.

      Anchoring bias

    • B.

      Status quo bias

    • C.

      Framing bias

    • D.

      Certainty

  78. Q 78.

    After two years of unsuccessful product development, executives increase the budget because they do not want to admit that the earlier investment was wasted. This is:

    • A.

      Escalation of commitment

    • B.

      Confirmation bias

    • C.

      Bounded rationality

    • D.

      Programmed decision

  79. Q 79.

    A manager asks subordinates to find evidence that the preferred new policy will succeed and does not request evidence against it. This is:

    • A.

      Confirmation bias

    • B.

      Anchoring bias

    • C.

      Problem framing

    • D.

      Administrative satisficing

  80. Q 80.

    A department keeps its existing workflow because changing it would require training and temporary disruption, even though customer complaints suggest it should be redesigned. This is:

    • A.

      Status quo bias

    • B.

      Anchoring bias

    • C.

      Overconfidence bias

    • D.

      Political negotiation

  81. Q 81.

    A workforce accepts a redesigned schedule when it is framed as giving employees more free time but rejects the identical schedule when it is framed as removing mandatory afternoon shifts. This is:

    • A.

      Problem-framing bias

    • B.

      Status quo bias

    • C.

      Anchoring bias

    • D.

      Escalation of commitment

  82. Q 82.

    A project manager predicts completion in six months with no range of possible outcomes, even though comparable projects have varied widely. Which bias is most evident?

    • A.

      Overconfidence bias

    • B.

      Confirmation bias

    • C.

      Anchoring bias

    • D.

      Satisficing

  83. Q 83.

    Which action is the most effective way to reduce anchoring bias?

    • A.

      Ask people to make independent estimates before hearing others' initial figures

    • B.

      Let the first speaker set the range of acceptable answers

    • C.

      Ask only for reasons that support the initial estimate

    • D.

      Avoid discussing estimates altogether

  84. Q 84.

    Which practice best counters confirmation bias?

    • A.

      Actively seek credible evidence that could disprove the favored conclusion

    • B.

      Review only evidence that supports the preferred conclusion

    • C.

      Repeat the original conclusion more often to increase familiarity

    • D.

      Avoid asking colleagues who disagree with the favored view

  85. Q 85.

    Which action is most likely to reduce status quo bias?

    • A.

      Require teams to compare the current process with realistic alternatives before choosing

    • B.

      Give the current process automatic priority because it is already operating

    • C.

      Focus discussion on the disadvantages of changing the process

    • D.

      Treat the current process as the benchmark without questioning it

  86. Q 86.

    Which approach can help a manager check for problem-framing bias?

    • A.

      Restate the proposal in neutral language and in both gain and loss frames, then compare reactions

    • B.

      Use only the frame that produces the preferred answer

    • C.

      Attach greater importance to the first numerical estimate presented

    • D.

      Preserve the same frame so stakeholders remain consistent

  87. Q 87.

    Which practice is the best response to overconfidence bias?

    • A.

      Use ranges, alternative scenarios, and outside perspectives when forecasting outcomes

    • B.

      Present the most optimistic forecast without qualification

    • C.

      Rely only on the manager's personal experience

    • D.

      Remove all alternative forecasts from the analysis

  88. Q 88.

    What is the main purpose of a personal decision framework?

    • A.

      To help managers understand and improve their habitual decision-making style

    • B.

      To prescribe one universally superior decision style for every situation

    • C.

      To eliminate intuition from managerial decisions

    • D.

      To replace feedback with a permanent personal label

  89. Q 89.

    Which statement correctly distinguishes intuitive and analytical decision approaches?

    • A.

      Intuition relies on rapid experience-based judgment, while analysis uses deliberate reasoning and organized comparison

    • B.

      Intuition requires extended data collection, while analysis ignores information

    • C.

      Intuition and analysis are identical because both are purely emotional

    • D.

      Intuition applies only to programmed decisions, while analysis applies only to nonprogrammed decisions

  90. Q 90.

    For which decision is a more analytical approach generally most appropriate?

    • A.

      A complex, high-stakes investment decision with sufficient time and reliable data

    • B.

      A familiar, low-risk routine with an experienced manager

    • C.

      A recurring scheduling choice governed by a clear policy

    • D.

      An immediate reaction requiring no time for reflection

  91. Q 91.

    For which decision is an intuitive approach generally most appropriate?

    • A.

      A familiar, repetitive, low-risk situation in which the manager has relevant experience

    • B.

      A highly complex investment with many unknown variables

    • C.

      A strategic choice with sharply conflicting stakeholder goals

    • D.

      A decision with abundant reliable data and ample time for analysis

  92. Q 92.

    What should a manager do when a preferred personal decision style does not fit the demands of a particular problem?

    • A.

      Adapt the approach by using more analysis, intuition, consultation, or other methods as needed

    • B.

      Continue using the preferred style regardless of the circumstances

    • C.

      Reject all decision-making frameworks as irrelevant

    • D.

      Delegate every complex decision to colleagues

  93. Q 93.

    Why can awareness of personal decision style improve managerial effectiveness?

    • A.

      It helps managers anticipate habitual errors and choose a method suited to the situation

    • B.

      It guarantees that every decision will produce positive results

    • C.

      It eliminates the need for managerial judgment

    • D.

      It proves that managers using the same style will make identical decisions

  94. Q 94.

    Which group technique is designed primarily to generate a large number of possible ideas before evaluation begins?

    • A.

      Brainstorming

    • B.

      Devil's advocacy

    • C.

      Delphi technique

    • D.

      Nominal group technique

  95. Q 95.

    Which technique deliberately assigns someone to challenge a proposal and identify its weaknesses?

    • A.

      Devil's advocacy

    • B.

      Brainstorming

    • C.

      Dialectical inquiry

    • D.

      Delphi technique

  96. Q 96.

    Which feature is characteristic of the nominal group technique?

    • A.

      Members first generate ideas independently and then discuss and rank them in a structured way

    • B.

      The most senior member speaks first and controls the final decision

    • C.

      Experts exchange anonymous questionnaires over several rounds

    • D.

      One person is assigned to criticize every proposal

  97. Q 97.

    A company wants input from dispersed experts without letting status or personality influence the first responses. Which technique is most suitable?

    • A.

      Delphi technique

    • B.

      Brainstorming

    • C.

      Nominal group technique

    • D.

      Programmed decision making

  98. Q 98.

    Which technique has two teams develop opposing plans and then evaluate them under different assumptions?

    • A.

      Dialectical inquiry

    • B.

      Delphi technique

    • C.

      Nominal group technique

    • D.

      Programmed decision

  99. Q 99.

    A manager is concerned that a senior executive dominates a creative meeting and quieter members avoid disagreeing. Which technique would best reduce this problem?

    • A.

      Nominal group technique

    • B.

      Unstructured brainstorming with no rules

    • C.

      Managerial intuition alone

    • D.

      A programmed purchasing rule

  100. Q 100.

    An organization faces an unprecedented crisis, has incomplete information, and must negotiate priorities among departments with competing interests before implementing a response. Which combination best fits the situation?

    • A.

      A nonprogrammed decision, a political model, and the full six-step process through feedback

    • B.

      A programmed decision, a classical model, and selection without implementation

    • C.

      A programmed decision, an administrative model, and diagnosis without alternatives

    • D.

      A nonprogrammed decision, a certainty model, and evaluation without goal recognition

Answers and explanations are in mode.