Managerial Decision Making — Medium-Difficulty Exam
Exam info
- Subject
- Managerial Decision Making
- Exam type
- University
- Questions
- 100
- Duration
- 100 min
- Answers
- ✓ With explanations
Questions (100)
- Q 1.
In a management context, which statement best defines decision making?
- A.
Identifying a problem or opportunity and taking action to resolve or exploit it
- B.
Selecting the only available alternative without investigating the situation
- C.
Collecting information and reporting it to senior managers
- D.
Carrying out a policy that has already been approved
- A.
- Q 2.
Why is effective decision making considered a vital part of good management?
- A.
Managerial choices strongly influence organizational performance, growth, and survival
- B.
It eliminates the need for managerial leadership and communication
- C.
It ensures that every decision is entirely free of uncertainty
- D.
It replaces the need to evaluate results after implementation
- A.
- Q 3.
Which statement most accurately defines a decision?
- A.
A choice made from a set of available alternatives
- B.
Any information a manager receives about an organization
- C.
A rule designed for situations that recur frequently
- D.
The result obtained after a plan has been implemented
- A.
- Q 4.
Which situation is the clearest example of a programmed decision?
- A.
Processing the company's recurring payroll according to an established procedure
- B.
Choosing a long-term strategy for entry into an unfamiliar country
- C.
Responding to a sudden crisis that has no established operating procedure
- D.
Creating an innovation policy when the organization's goals remain unclear
- A.
- Q 5.
Which situation is most likely to require a nonprogrammed decision?
- A.
Selecting a supplier from an approved list under the standard purchasing policy
- B.
Reordering standard materials when inventory reaches the established reorder point
- C.
Determining how to respond to an unprecedented product-safety crisis
- D.
Developing a new market-entry strategy when reliable competitor information is unavailable
- A.
- Q 6.
Which statement best describes a condition of certainty?
- A.
The information needed to evaluate the alternatives is available
- B.
The manager knows the goal but cannot identify any feasible alternative
- C.
Future results depend on events that management cannot control
- D.
Stakeholders interpret the organization's purpose in conflicting ways
- A.
- Q 7.
Which description most closely matches a condition of risk?
- A.
The future outcome is subject to chance even though the manager has relevant information
- B.
All information needed for the decision is completely available
- C.
The organization's goals are disputed by several stakeholder groups
- D.
The manager lacks information about future events and cannot forecast their outcomes
- A.
- Q 8.
A company has reliable historical sales data but cannot obtain information about a competitor's likely future strategy. Which condition best describes this decision environment?
- A.
Certainty
- B.
Ambiguity based mainly on conflicting organizational goals
- C.
Uncertainty
- D.
A programmed decision with no need for analysis
- A.
- Q 9.
Which situation most clearly represents ambiguity and conflict?
- A.
A manager has complete cost data for three equipment options
- B.
A team knows the operational cause of a production delay
- C.
Departments disagree about the objective that a new project should pursue
- D.
Managers cannot agree on what the problem is or which organizational objective should guide the choice
- A.
- Q 10.
Why do managers seek additional information before making a decision?
- A.
To compare alternatives more effectively and reduce uncertainty
- B.
To avoid responsibility for implementing the eventual choice
- C.
To guarantee that every possible future event can be predicted
- D.
To turn a nonprogrammed decision into a programmed one
- A.
- Q 11.
A retail chain routinely replenishes popular products using a fixed inventory rule. This is an example of a:
- A.
Programmed decision
- B.
Nonprogrammed decision
- C.
Political model decision
- D.
Uncertain administrative decision
- A.
- Q 12.
Managers must design a completely new response to a rare regulatory change that affects several business units. The decision is best classified as:
- A.
Programmed because management can use the organization's decision-making process
- B.
Nonprogrammed because the situation is unique and poorly structured
- C.
Certain because managers have observed the regulation for many years
- D.
Purely administrative because the change follows a legal process
- A.
- Q 13.
Which pairing correctly distinguishes certainty from uncertainty?
- A.
Certainty means relevant information is available; uncertainty means relevant information is incomplete
- B.
Certainty means goals are disputed; uncertainty means goals are agreed upon
- C.
Certainty means outcomes are controlled; uncertainty means outcomes cannot occur
- D.
Certainty means decisions are repeated; uncertainty means decisions are unique
- A.
- Q 14.
Which pairing correctly distinguishes risk from uncertainty?
- A.
Risk involves outcomes subject to chance; uncertainty involves incomplete information about future events
- B.
Risk means all information is missing; uncertainty means all information is available
- C.
Risk means the goals are unclear; uncertainty means the alternatives are clear
- D.
Risk means the problem recurs; uncertainty means the problem is unique
- A.
- Q 15.
Under which condition is it easiest to make a programmed decision?
- A.
The situation recurs regularly and an established rule can be applied
- B.
The problem has never occurred before and no alternatives can be identified
- C.
Stakeholders cannot agree on the organization's goals
- D.
The manager lacks information about every possible future outcome
- A.
- Q 16.
Why do nonprogrammed decisions usually require more effort to develop alternatives?
- A.
Their situations are unique or unstructured, so standard courses of action may not apply
- B.
They can only be made by senior executives
- C.
They never involve implementation or feedback
- D.
They require a single objectively correct solution
- A.
- Q 17.
Which statement best summarizes the classical, or rational, decision-making model?
- A.
A logically rational manager evaluates known alternatives under known criteria to maximize organizational goals
- B.
A manager accepts the first workable solution because information and time are limited
- C.
Coalition members negotiate goals because their interests are incompatible
- D.
A manager relies on immediate experience without consciously comparing alternatives
- A.
- Q 18.
Which assumption belongs to the rational decision-making model?
- A.
The decision maker's goals are clearly established and broadly accepted
- B.
Stakeholder groups bargain until they force a political compromise
- C.
The manager must choose the first alternative that meets minimum requirements
- D.
The manager can examine every possible alternative without resource constraints
- A.
- Q 19.
What does the rational model assume about the conditions surrounding a decision?
- A.
The manager can strive for certainty and calculate the consequences of alternatives
- B.
The manager must accept incomplete information without attempting to improve it
- C.
The organization has only one interest group with no competing goals
- D.
The final choice will be determined primarily through political negotiation
- A.
- Q 20.
In the rational decision-making model, what is assumed about criteria for evaluating alternatives?
- A.
They are identified and known before the alternatives are compared
- B.
They emerge only after a coalition has negotiated a compromise
- C.
They consist solely of whatever information happens to be available
- D.
They are intentionally kept vague to preserve managerial flexibility
- A.
- Q 21.
What does the rational decision maker attempt to achieve?
- A.
The maximum possible outcome for the organization's goals
- B.
The first alternative that satisfies minimum criteria
- C.
The option favored by the largest informal coalition
- D.
The alternative requiring the least managerial effort
- A.
- Q 22.
How does the administrative model differ in purpose from the rational model?
- A.
It describes how managers actually decide when facing human and environmental limitations
- B.
It prescribes the ideal procedure that every rational manager should always follow
- C.
It explains decisions solely through negotiation among competing interest groups
- D.
It assumes that managers possess complete information and unlimited time
- A.
- Q 23.
What does bounded rationality mean in the administrative model?
- A.
Managers have limited information, time, cognitive capacity, and other resources
- B.
Managers are prohibited from using logic or quantitative analysis
- C.
Managers are permitted to consider only one alternative
- D.
Managers must accept any outcome regardless of whether it meets objectives
- A.
- Q 24.
A manager selects the first proposal that meets the minimum acceptable performance standard and stops searching. This behavior is called:
- A.
Satisficing
- B.
Maximizing
- C.
Bargaining
- D.
Certainty
- A.
- Q 25.
Why is the search for alternatives limited in the administrative model?
- A.
Managers face constraints involving information, time, cognitive ability, and organizational resources
- B.
Managers are forbidden from considering new approaches
- C.
Every organization has already evaluated all possible solutions
- D.
Managers always prefer political negotiation to analysis
- A.
- Q 26.
Which statement best defines intuition as used in the administrative model?
- A.
A rapid grasp of a decision situation based on experience without conscious analysis
- B.
A detailed calculation of every alternative's expected monetary value
- C.
A compromise reached after extended negotiation with stakeholders
- D.
A rule automatically applied to a recurring organizational problem
- A.
- Q 27.
Which statement about goals is consistent with the administrative model?
- A.
Goals are often vague and lack broad consensus
- B.
Goals are always clear, measurable, and universally accepted
- C.
Goals are determined only by external government regulators
- D.
Goals do not influence the choice among alternatives
- A.
- Q 28.
For which category of decisions is the political model especially useful?
- A.
Nonprogrammed decisions involving complex or disputed issues
- B.
Routine decisions governed entirely by a fixed policy
- C.
Decisions in which all facts and outcomes are completely known
- D.
Only personnel decisions involving a single employee
- A.
- Q 29.
Which assumption is fundamental to the political model?
- A.
Organizations contain participants with diverse and sometimes conflicting interests
- B.
Every participant has exactly the same objective and information
- C.
Managers can identify and evaluate every relevant dimension of a problem
- D.
Decisions are made without discussion or negotiation
- A.
- Q 30.
How does the political model treat information?
- A.
As ambiguous, incomplete, and interpreted differently by interested parties
- B.
As complete, objective, and sufficient for calculating the optimum
- C.
As irrelevant because decisions are made entirely through intuition
- D.
As available only after the final alternative has been implemented
- A.
- Q 31.
What does the political model assume about managers' ability to understand every dimension of a problem?
- A.
They generally lack the resources needed to identify and analyze every dimension
- B.
They can identify every dimension if they use the rational model
- C.
They need not understand the problem because goals are always imposed externally
- D.
They always understand every problem but disagree only over implementation details
- A.
- Q 32.
How are goals and alternatives often settled in the political model?
- A.
Through debate, bargaining, and negotiation among coalition members
- B.
By applying a fixed rule without discussion
- C.
By choosing the first alternative that meets a minimum threshold
- D.
By mathematically calculating the only optimum under complete information
- A.
- Q 33.
Which statement correctly compares the classical and administrative models?
- A.
The classical model seeks the optimum, whereas the administrative model often settles for a satisfactory solution
- B.
The classical model assumes vague goals, whereas the administrative model assumes complete agreement
- C.
The classical model relies on coalition bargaining, whereas the administrative model requires full information
- D.
Both models assume that the manager has unlimited time and information
- A.
- Q 34.
Which statement correctly compares the administrative and political models?
- A.
The administrative model emphasizes constrained satisficing, whereas the political model emphasizes bargaining among competing interests
- B.
The administrative model assumes full information, whereas the political model assumes complete certainty
- C.
The administrative model requires maximizing, whereas the political model permits only programmed decisions
- D.
The administrative model ignores organizational factors, whereas the political model ignores conflict
- A.
- Q 35.
A manager faces a clearly defined problem, has complete information about three alternatives, and uses predetermined criteria to identify the best option. Which model is being used?
- A.
Classical model
- B.
Administrative model
- C.
Political model
- D.
Programmed decision model
- A.
- Q 36.
Several departments disagree about the priorities of a new project, and senior managers must negotiate a common objective before choosing a course of action. Which model best explains the process?
- A.
Classical model
- B.
Administrative model
- C.
Political model
- D.
Certainty model
- A.
- Q 37.
A manager examines only three practical options because time and information are limited, then accepts the first one that meets minimum performance standards. This decision best reflects the:
- A.
Administrative model
- B.
Classical model
- C.
Political model
- D.
Programmed decision
- A.
- Q 38.
Which statement accurately contrasts rational choice with administrative choice?
- A.
Rational choice aims for the maximum outcome under ideal assumptions, while administrative choice seeks an acceptable outcome under practical constraints
- B.
Rational choice uses intuition, while administrative choice uses only statistical analysis
- C.
Rational choice is descriptive of actual managers, while administrative choice describes an ideal decision
- D.
Rational choice ignores organizational goals, while administrative choice accepts any outcome
- A.
- Q 39.
Why is the classical decision-making model often described as an ideal rather than a complete description of actual managerial behavior?
- A.
It assumes clarity, calculability, rationality, and goal consensus that managers do not always possess
- B.
It contains no logical sequence for comparing alternatives
- C.
It applies only to decisions made by lower-level employees
- D.
It assumes that managers never communicate before deciding
- A.
- Q 40.
Why does the political model resemble the environment in which managers actually operate?
- A.
It recognizes diverse interests, incomplete information, resource constraints, and negotiation
- B.
It assumes that all decisions can be calculated with perfect certainty
- C.
It assumes that every problem has one objectively superior solution
- D.
It removes the need for managerial persuasion during implementation
- A.
- Q 41.
What is the first step in the six-step managerial decision-making process?
- A.
Recognizing that a decision is required
- B.
Evaluating the results of the previous alternative
- C.
Implementing the selected course of action
- D.
Diagnosing the causes of an established problem
- A.
- Q 42.
In the decision-making process, when is a problem present?
- A.
When organizational performance falls below an established goal
- B.
When the organization discovers a way to exceed its current goals
- C.
Whenever several feasible alternatives exist
- D.
After a selected alternative has been implemented
- A.
- Q 43.
Which situation is an opportunity rather than a problem in the decision-making process?
- A.
Current sales are 10 percent below the annual target
- B.
A new technology could enable the organization to exceed its present output goal
- C.
A customer complaint indicates that a promised service was not delivered
- D.
A product line is generating losses despite meeting its original sales target
- A.
- Q 44.
What is the purpose of diagnosis in managerial decision making?
- A.
To understand the current situation and analyze the causes of the problem
- B.
To persuade employees to accept the solution selected by management
- C.
To choose the alternative with the greatest expected benefit
- D.
To communicate the results of a completed project
- A.
- Q 45.
Which set of questions is most appropriate for diagnosing a managerial problem?
- A.
What is the disequilibrium, when and where did it occur, how did it occur, and how urgent and interconnected is it?
- B.
Which solution has the highest expected monetary value?
- C.
Who should be appointed to lead the project after the decision is made?
- D.
Did the chosen alternative meet last year's performance standard?
- A.
- Q 46.
A manager discovers that two activities both contribute to a delay and wants to determine which activity had the greater effect. Which step does this activity most directly support?
- A.
Diagnosis and analysis of causes
- B.
Development of alternatives
- C.
Implementation
- D.
Evaluation and feedback
- A.
- Q 47.
What is the central activity in the development-of-alternatives step?
- A.
Generating a set of possible solutions to the diagnosed problem
- B.
Determining why the problem first occurred
- C.
Assigning resources to the solution already selected
- D.
Measuring whether the solution met the objective
- A.
- Q 48.
Why are feasible alternatives generally easier to identify for programmed decisions?
- A.
Established procedures already specify how recurring situations should be handled
- B.
Programmed decisions never face performance problems
- C.
Managers are prohibited from using creative approaches
- D.
All possible future outcomes are known with certainty
- A.
- Q 49.
In a nonprogrammed decision, developing alternatives often requires:
- A.
Creating new courses of action because existing procedures are inadequate
- B.
Applying the same solution that was used during the previous occurrence
- C.
Rejecting all alternatives that differ from the current procedure
- D.
Avoiding discussion with people who understand the problem
- A.
- Q 50.
What occurs during the selection-of-the-desired-alternative step?
- A.
The manager chooses the most promising course of action from the alternatives
- B.
The manager first recognizes that a problem or opportunity exists
- C.
The manager assigns people and resources to carry out the decision
- D.
The manager determines whether the results met expectations
- A.
- Q 51.
Which criterion should guide the selection of an alternative?
- A.
Its fit with the organization's goals and objectives
- B.
Its ability to avoid all managerial discussion
- C.
The personal preference of the manager regardless of organizational goals
- D.
The fact that it requires no monitoring after implementation
- A.
- Q 52.
When selecting among alternatives, managers should generally prefer an option that:
- A.
Creates the greatest expected benefit with the least risk and uncertainty
- B.
Requires the most resources regardless of its expected results
- C.
Eliminates the possibility of any negative outcome
- D.
Is selected before any feasible alternatives are identified
- A.
- Q 53.
What does implementation of a chosen alternative involve?
- A.
Turning the selected course of action into coordinated organizational action
- B.
Generating additional alternatives without choosing one
- C.
Determining whether the organization met its established goals
- D.
Establishing that a decision requirement exists
- A.
- Q 54.
Which managerial abilities are especially important for successfully implementing a decision?
- A.
Managerial, administrative, and persuasive abilities
- B.
Only financial calculation abilities
- C.
Only legal research abilities
- D.
No managerial abilities, because implementation is automatic
- A.
- Q 55.
Which three elements support effective implementation of a managerial decision?
- A.
Communication, motivation, and leadership
- B.
Certainty, ambiguity, and conflict
- C.
Diagnosis, development, and selection
- D.
Anchoring, framing, and overconfidence
- A.
- Q 56.
What is the primary purpose of the evaluation-and-feedback step?
- A.
To determine how well the alternative was implemented and whether it succeeded
- B.
To avoid using the chosen alternative again
- C.
To create the original set of alternatives
- D.
To decide which goals the organization should pursue before any action
- A.
- Q 57.
Why is feedback described as a continuous process?
- A.
Managers must keep monitoring results and use information to improve action
- B.
Managers must continuously reopen the original decision without any evaluation
- C.
Feedback occurs only after every future alternative has been implemented
- D.
Continuous feedback replaces the need for implementation
- A.
- Q 58.
For a large problem, why may managers implement several alternatives in sequence?
- A.
Sequential implementation allows the organization to learn from each attempt before proceeding
- B.
It eliminates the need to diagnose the underlying problem
- C.
It guarantees that each alternative will improve performance
- D.
It is required for all programmed decisions
- A.
- Q 59.
Which statement correctly distinguishes decision recognition from diagnosis?
- A.
Recognition notices that a decision is needed; diagnosis investigates the nature and causes of the situation
- B.
Recognition identifies causes; diagnosis selects the best alternative
- C.
Recognition implements a decision; diagnosis evaluates its results
- D.
Recognition and diagnosis are identical activities
- A.
- Q 60.
Which statement correctly distinguishes development of alternatives from selection?
- A.
Development creates possible courses of action; selection chooses among them
- B.
Development evaluates results; selection diagnoses causes
- C.
Development assigns resources; selection communicates the decision
- D.
Development occurs only after evaluation; selection occurs only after recognition
- A.
- Q 61.
Which statement correctly distinguishes selection from implementation?
- A.
Selection determines the preferred alternative; implementation carries it out
- B.
Selection generates new options; implementation ranks them
- C.
Selection determines causes; implementation assigns resources
- D.
Selection assesses final performance; implementation creates alternatives
- A.
- Q 62.
Which statement correctly distinguishes implementation from evaluation?
- A.
Implementation executes the decision; evaluation judges the execution and its results
- B.
Implementation selects an alternative; evaluation generates alternatives
- C.
Implementation diagnoses causes; evaluation recognizes the problem
- D.
Implementation and evaluation are the same activity
- A.
- Q 63.
Why can the managerial decision-making process be viewed as a cycle?
- A.
Feedback from evaluating one decision can reveal new problems and opportunities
- B.
Every organization repeats exactly the same decision without changes
- C.
The six steps occur simultaneously and have no sequence
- D.
Implementation must always return directly to development without evaluation
- A.
- Q 64.
A manager notices that sales have fallen below the established target. Which decision-making step is being performed?
- A.
Recognition of a decision requirement
- B.
Development of alternatives
- C.
Selection of the desired alternative
- D.
Evaluation and feedback
- A.
- Q 65.
Managers interview employees and map the production process to determine why deliveries are late. Which step are they performing?
- A.
Diagnosis and analysis of causes
- B.
Selection of the desired alternative
- C.
Implementation of the chosen alternative
- D.
Evaluation and feedback
- A.
- Q 66.
After diagnosing a shortage of warehouse workers, a team conducts a brainstorming workshop and records several possible staffing responses. Which step is occurring?
- A.
Development of alternatives
- B.
Diagnosis and analysis of causes
- C.
Evaluation and feedback
- D.
Recognition of a decision requirement
- A.
- Q 67.
A manager compares three staffing alternatives against cost, quality, and speed objectives and chooses one. Which step is being completed?
- A.
Selection of the desired alternative
- B.
Recognition of a decision requirement
- C.
Diagnosis and analysis of causes
- D.
Evaluation and feedback
- A.
- Q 68.
After selecting a new supplier, a manager assigns responsibility, allocates funds, and communicates the decision to employees. Which step is occurring?
- A.
Implementation
- B.
Diagnosis
- C.
Development of alternatives
- D.
Evaluation and feedback
- A.
- Q 69.
Three months after launching a new service, a manager compares actual customer satisfaction with the original objective. Which step is being performed?
- A.
Evaluation and feedback
- B.
Recognition of a decision requirement
- C.
Development of alternatives
- D.
Selection of the desired alternative
- A.
- Q 70.
After a pilot project produces disappointing results, a manager revises the project based on customer feedback and launches another version. This activity primarily demonstrates:
- A.
Evaluation and feedback feeding into further implementation
- B.
Development of alternatives without any prior implementation
- C.
Programmed decision making based on a recurring rule
- D.
Political negotiation among coalition members
- A.
- Q 71.
A manager allows the first estimate heard in a meeting to anchor all later judgments, even though more evidence is available. Which bias is operating?
- A.
Anchoring bias
- B.
Status quo bias
- C.
Overconfidence bias
- D.
Satisficing
- A.
- Q 72.
A manager continues funding a failing project because abandoning it would make an earlier investment appear wasteful. This is an example of:
- A.
Escalation of commitment
- B.
Confirmation bias
- C.
Framing bias
- D.
Bounded rationality
- A.
- Q 73.
A manager selectively attends to evidence supporting a preferred strategy and dismisses contradictory data. Which bias is most evident?
- A.
Confirmation bias
- B.
Anchoring bias
- C.
Status quo bias
- D.
Programmed decision making
- A.
- Q 74.
A manager keeps an ineffective process because changing it would disrupt established routines, even though a better alternative is available. Which bias is illustrated?
- A.
Status quo bias
- B.
Overconfidence bias
- C.
Anchoring bias
- D.
Political model
- A.
- Q 75.
Which behavior most clearly demonstrates problem-framing bias?
- A.
Choosing differently depending on whether the identical issue is presented as a gain or a loss
- B.
Accepting the first proposal that meets minimum criteria
- C.
Using an existing policy for a recurring procedure
- D.
Consulting colleagues before making a complex choice
- A.
- Q 76.
Which situation is an example of overconfidence bias?
- A.
A manager predicts a project will succeed with virtually no possibility of delay
- B.
A manager accepts a solution because it meets the minimum acceptance standard
- C.
A manager continues using a procedure because it has always worked in the past
- D.
A manager seeks a second estimate before accepting a consultant's forecast
- A.
- Q 77.
A consultant first mentions that a new product will cost 500,000 dollars. After that estimate, the entire team rejects options below 450,000 dollars even though the original figure was unsupported. Which bias is illustrated?
- A.
Anchoring bias
- B.
Status quo bias
- C.
Framing bias
- D.
Certainty
- A.
- Q 78.
After two years of unsuccessful product development, executives increase the budget because they do not want to admit that the earlier investment was wasted. This is:
- A.
Escalation of commitment
- B.
Confirmation bias
- C.
Bounded rationality
- D.
Programmed decision
- A.
- Q 79.
A manager asks subordinates to find evidence that the preferred new policy will succeed and does not request evidence against it. This is:
- A.
Confirmation bias
- B.
Anchoring bias
- C.
Problem framing
- D.
Administrative satisficing
- A.
- Q 80.
A department keeps its existing workflow because changing it would require training and temporary disruption, even though customer complaints suggest it should be redesigned. This is:
- A.
Status quo bias
- B.
Anchoring bias
- C.
Overconfidence bias
- D.
Political negotiation
- A.
- Q 81.
A workforce accepts a redesigned schedule when it is framed as giving employees more free time but rejects the identical schedule when it is framed as removing mandatory afternoon shifts. This is:
- A.
Problem-framing bias
- B.
Status quo bias
- C.
Anchoring bias
- D.
Escalation of commitment
- A.
- Q 82.
A project manager predicts completion in six months with no range of possible outcomes, even though comparable projects have varied widely. Which bias is most evident?
- A.
Overconfidence bias
- B.
Confirmation bias
- C.
Anchoring bias
- D.
Satisficing
- A.
- Q 83.
Which action is the most effective way to reduce anchoring bias?
- A.
Ask people to make independent estimates before hearing others' initial figures
- B.
Let the first speaker set the range of acceptable answers
- C.
Ask only for reasons that support the initial estimate
- D.
Avoid discussing estimates altogether
- A.
- Q 84.
Which practice best counters confirmation bias?
- A.
Actively seek credible evidence that could disprove the favored conclusion
- B.
Review only evidence that supports the preferred conclusion
- C.
Repeat the original conclusion more often to increase familiarity
- D.
Avoid asking colleagues who disagree with the favored view
- A.
- Q 85.
Which action is most likely to reduce status quo bias?
- A.
Require teams to compare the current process with realistic alternatives before choosing
- B.
Give the current process automatic priority because it is already operating
- C.
Focus discussion on the disadvantages of changing the process
- D.
Treat the current process as the benchmark without questioning it
- A.
- Q 86.
Which approach can help a manager check for problem-framing bias?
- A.
Restate the proposal in neutral language and in both gain and loss frames, then compare reactions
- B.
Use only the frame that produces the preferred answer
- C.
Attach greater importance to the first numerical estimate presented
- D.
Preserve the same frame so stakeholders remain consistent
- A.
- Q 87.
Which practice is the best response to overconfidence bias?
- A.
Use ranges, alternative scenarios, and outside perspectives when forecasting outcomes
- B.
Present the most optimistic forecast without qualification
- C.
Rely only on the manager's personal experience
- D.
Remove all alternative forecasts from the analysis
- A.
- Q 88.
What is the main purpose of a personal decision framework?
- A.
To help managers understand and improve their habitual decision-making style
- B.
To prescribe one universally superior decision style for every situation
- C.
To eliminate intuition from managerial decisions
- D.
To replace feedback with a permanent personal label
- A.
- Q 89.
Which statement correctly distinguishes intuitive and analytical decision approaches?
- A.
Intuition relies on rapid experience-based judgment, while analysis uses deliberate reasoning and organized comparison
- B.
Intuition requires extended data collection, while analysis ignores information
- C.
Intuition and analysis are identical because both are purely emotional
- D.
Intuition applies only to programmed decisions, while analysis applies only to nonprogrammed decisions
- A.
- Q 90.
For which decision is a more analytical approach generally most appropriate?
- A.
A complex, high-stakes investment decision with sufficient time and reliable data
- B.
A familiar, low-risk routine with an experienced manager
- C.
A recurring scheduling choice governed by a clear policy
- D.
An immediate reaction requiring no time for reflection
- A.
- Q 91.
For which decision is an intuitive approach generally most appropriate?
- A.
A familiar, repetitive, low-risk situation in which the manager has relevant experience
- B.
A highly complex investment with many unknown variables
- C.
A strategic choice with sharply conflicting stakeholder goals
- D.
A decision with abundant reliable data and ample time for analysis
- A.
- Q 92.
What should a manager do when a preferred personal decision style does not fit the demands of a particular problem?
- A.
Adapt the approach by using more analysis, intuition, consultation, or other methods as needed
- B.
Continue using the preferred style regardless of the circumstances
- C.
Reject all decision-making frameworks as irrelevant
- D.
Delegate every complex decision to colleagues
- A.
- Q 93.
Why can awareness of personal decision style improve managerial effectiveness?
- A.
It helps managers anticipate habitual errors and choose a method suited to the situation
- B.
It guarantees that every decision will produce positive results
- C.
It eliminates the need for managerial judgment
- D.
It proves that managers using the same style will make identical decisions
- A.
- Q 94.
Which group technique is designed primarily to generate a large number of possible ideas before evaluation begins?
- A.
Brainstorming
- B.
Devil's advocacy
- C.
Delphi technique
- D.
Nominal group technique
- A.
- Q 95.
Which technique deliberately assigns someone to challenge a proposal and identify its weaknesses?
- A.
Devil's advocacy
- B.
Brainstorming
- C.
Dialectical inquiry
- D.
Delphi technique
- A.
- Q 96.
Which feature is characteristic of the nominal group technique?
- A.
Members first generate ideas independently and then discuss and rank them in a structured way
- B.
The most senior member speaks first and controls the final decision
- C.
Experts exchange anonymous questionnaires over several rounds
- D.
One person is assigned to criticize every proposal
- A.
- Q 97.
A company wants input from dispersed experts without letting status or personality influence the first responses. Which technique is most suitable?
- A.
Delphi technique
- B.
Brainstorming
- C.
Nominal group technique
- D.
Programmed decision making
- A.
- Q 98.
Which technique has two teams develop opposing plans and then evaluate them under different assumptions?
- A.
Dialectical inquiry
- B.
Delphi technique
- C.
Nominal group technique
- D.
Programmed decision
- A.
- Q 99.
A manager is concerned that a senior executive dominates a creative meeting and quieter members avoid disagreeing. Which technique would best reduce this problem?
- A.
Nominal group technique
- B.
Unstructured brainstorming with no rules
- C.
Managerial intuition alone
- D.
A programmed purchasing rule
- A.
- Q 100.
An organization faces an unprecedented crisis, has incomplete information, and must negotiate priorities among departments with competing interests before implementing a response. Which combination best fits the situation?
- A.
A nonprogrammed decision, a political model, and the full six-step process through feedback
- B.
A programmed decision, a classical model, and selection without implementation
- C.
A programmed decision, an administrative model, and diagnosis without alternatives
- D.
A nonprogrammed decision, a certainty model, and evaluation without goal recognition
- A.
Answers and explanations are in mode.