Oncology / Cancer Biology University

Oncology and Cancer Biology - Comprehensive Exam

80 questions

120 min

Answer key

Exam info

Subject: Oncology / Cancer Biology
Exam type: University
Questions: 80
Duration: 120 min
Answers: ✓ With explanations

Questions (80)

Q 1.
According to the introduction, how do cancer cells primarily spread throughout the body?
- A.
  Through the nervous system exclusively
- B.
  Through the bloodstream or lymphatic vessels
- C.
  Only through direct contact with adjacent cells
- D.
  By transforming normal cells in their immediate vicinity
Q 2.
Which of the following is a characteristic that distinguishes benign tumors from malignant tumors?
- A.
  Benign tumors always cause pain
- B.
  Benign tumors grow slowly and are often encapsulated
- C.
  Benign tumors frequently metastasize
- D.
  Benign tumors are always anaplastic
Q 3.
The term 'anaplasia' indicates that cancer cells are:
- A.
  Highly differentiated
- B.
  Hyper-mature in their function
- C.
  Dedifferentiated or undifferentiated
- D.
  Arranged in orderly rows
Q 4.
Hyperchromatic nuclei, as seen in malignant cells, indicate:
- A.
  Decreased DNA content
- B.
  Excessive staining due to increased DNA content
- C.
  Complete absence of genetic material
- D.
  Normal cell appearance
Q 5.
The spread of cancer cells from a primary site to a secondary site in the body is called:
- A.
  Hyperplasia
- B.
  Differentiation
- C.
  Metastasis
- D.
  Carcinoma in situ
Q 6.
Which of the following is NOT one of the two main functions of DNA in a normal cell?
- A.
  Control of cell division (mitosis)
- B.
  Control of protein synthesis
- C.
  Storage of energy for cellular activities
- D.
  Both A and B
Q 7.
The process of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells is called:
- A.
  Apoptosis
- B.
  Mitosis
- C.
  Necrosis
- D.
  Mutation
Q 8.
The molecular process by which DNA's code is transmitted to direct protein synthesis involves:
- A.
  Direct DNA-to-protein transfer without an intermediate
- B.
  RNA carrying the coded message from DNA to the cytoplasm
- C.
  Lipids translating the genetic code
- D.
  Carbohydrates carrying the coded message
Q 9.
Carcinogenesis is best described as:
- A.
  The destruction of cancer cells by the immune system
- B.
  The transformation of a normal cell into a cancerous one
- C.
  The spread of cancer to distant organs
- D.
  The treatment of cancer with drugs
Q 10.
Apoptosis is best described as:
- A.
  Uncontrolled cell division
- B.
  Programmed cell death
- C.
  The formation of cancer cells
- D.
  Tissue inflammation
Q 11.
Environmental agents that cause cancer are called:
- A.
  Mutagens
- B.
  Carcinogens
- C.
  Oncogenes
- D.
  Toxins
Q 12.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical carcinogen?
- A.
  Vitamin C
- B.
  Hydrocarbons in cigarette smoke
- C.
  Oxygen
- D.
  Water
Q 13.
Ultraviolet radiation in sunlight is most strongly associated with which type of cancer?
- A.
  Lung cancer
- B.
  Skin cancer
- C.
  Liver cancer
- D.
  Brain cancer
Q 14.
Which virus is known to cause a form of leukemia in adults?
- A.
  HPV
- B.
  Hepatitis B
- C.
  HTLV-1
- D.
  Herpesvirus type 8
Q 15.
Which virus is associated with the development of Kaposi sarcoma?
- A.
  HPV
- B.
  Hepatitis B
- C.
  HTLV-1
- D.
  Herpesvirus type 8
Q 16.
Oncogenes are best described as:
- A.
  Normal pieces of DNA that, when mutated, can cause cancer
- B.
  Genes that prevent cancer
- C.
  Genes whose only function is to produce hormones
- D.
  Genes found only in viruses
Q 17.
The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which type of cancer?
- A.
  Lung cancer
- B.
  Breast cancer
- C.
  Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
- D.
  Colon cancer
Q 18.
In the formation of the Philadelphia chromosome, which gene translocates from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22?
- A.
  BRCA1
- B.
  abl
- C.
  myc
- D.
  ras
Q 19.
Retinoblastoma is an example of:
- A.
  A viral cancer
- B.
  A chemical-induced cancer
- C.
  A hereditary cancer
- D.
  A radiation-induced cancer
Q 20.
Tumor suppressor genes normally function to:
- A.
  Promote cell division
- B.
  Regulate growth, promote differentiation, and suppress oncogenes
- C.
  Cause cancer when activated
- D.
  Produce oncogenes as a normal function
Q 21.
Which gene is associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome (multiple cancers)?
- A.
  BRCA1
- B.
  RB1
- C.
  TP53
- D.
  APC
Q 22.
Carcinomas derive from which type of tissue?
- A.
  Connective tissue
- B.
  Epithelial tissue
- C.
  Muscle tissue
- D.
  Nervous tissue
Q 23.
Approximately what percentage of all malignancies are carcinomas?
- A.
  10%
- B.
  25%
- C.
  50%
- D.
  90%
Q 24.
A benign tumor of glandular epithelial origin is called a(n):
- A.
  Carcinoma
- B.
  Sarcoma
- C.
  Adenoma
- D.
  Lymphoma
Q 25.
A gastric adenocarcinoma is a malignant tumor arising from:
- A.
  Smooth muscle of the stomach
- B.
  Glandular cells lining the stomach
- C.
  Connective tissue of the stomach
- D.
  Nerve tissue of the stomach
Q 26.
Sarcomas derive from which type of tissue?
- A.
  Epithelial tissue
- B.
  Connective tissue
- C.
  Glandular tissue
- D.
  Surface tissue only
Q 27.
An osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of:
- A.
  Cartilage
- B.
  Bone
- C.
  Fat
- D.
  Muscle
Q 28.
A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor of:
- A.
  Smooth muscle
- B.
  Skeletal (striated) muscle
- C.
  Cartilage
- D.
  Bone
Q 29.
A leiomyosarcoma arises from:
- A.
  Skeletal muscle
- B.
  Smooth (visceral) muscle
- C.
  Cartilage
- D.
  Bone marrow
Q 30.
Lymphomas such as Hodgkin lymphoma are classified as:
- A.
  Carcinomas
- B.
  Sarcomas (blood/lymphatic origin)
- C.
  Mixed-tissue tumors
- D.
  A completely separate category unrelated to sarcomas
Q 31.
A teratoma is an example of a:
- A.
  Carcinoma
- B.
  Sarcoma
- C.
  Mixed-tissue tumor
- D.
  Lymphoma
Q 32.
Wilms tumor is found in which organ?
- A.
  Liver
- B.
  Kidney
- C.
  Lung
- D.
  Brain
Q 33.
A cystic tumor is one that:
- A.
  Is solid throughout with no fluid
- B.
  Forms large open spaces filled with fluid
- C.
  Contains dead tissue
- D.
  Grows in a mushroom-like pattern
Q 34.
A fungating tumor is best described as:
- A.
  A tumor filled with fluid
- B.
  A mushrooming pattern of growth projecting from a tissue surface
- C.
  A tumor with a wart-like appearance
- D.
  A tumor with an open, exposed surface
Q 35.
A medullary tumor is best described as:
- A.
  A tumor filled with fluid
- B.
  A hard, dense tumor
- C.
  A large, soft, fleshy tumor
- D.
  A tumor containing dead tissue
Q 36.
A polypoid tumor that extends from a stem or stalk is described as:
- A.
  Sessile
- B.
  Pedunculated
- C.
  Fungating
- D.
  Verrucous
Q 37.
A sessile polypoid tumor is one that:
- A.
  Has a stem or stalk
- B.
  Extends from a broad base without a stem
- C.
  Forms a mushrooming pattern
- D.
  Has a wart-like appearance
Q 38.
The term 'ulcerating' when describing a tumor means:
- A.
  Filled with mucus
- B.
  Characterized by an open, exposed surface resulting from tissue death
- C.
  Forming finger-like projections
- D.
  Growing in a soft, fleshy pattern
Q 39.
'Carcinoma in situ' refers to:
- A.
  Cancer that has spread to distant sites
- B.
  Localized tumor cells that have not invaded adjacent structures
- C.
  Cancer that has invaded the lymph nodes
- D.
  A benign tumor
Q 40.
A papillary microscopic description indicates that tumor cells form:
- A.
  Small, flat sheets
- B.
  Small, finger-like or nipple-like projections
- C.
  Small glandular sacs
- D.
  Patterns resembling small sacs
Q 41.
A 'scirrhous' tumor is best described as:
- A.
  Soft and fleshy
- B.
  Densely packed and hard
- C.
  Filled with fluid
- D.
  Forming finger-like projections
Q 42.
'Follicular' microscopic description indicates tumor cells forming:
- A.
  Finger-like projections
- B.
  Small glandular sacs
- C.
  Wart-like growths
- D.
  Open ulcerated areas
Q 43.
An 'alveolar' microscopic description refers to tumor cells forming patterns resembling:
- A.
  Finger-like projections
- B.
  Small sacs
- C.
  Glandular sacs
- D.
  Wart-like growths
Q 44.
A 'pleomorphic' tumor is one that is:
- A.
  Composed of a single uniform cell type
- B.
  Composed of a variety of types of cells
- C.
  Filled with fluid
- D.
  Limited to one tissue layer
Q 45.
Tumor grading is based primarily on:
- A.
  The size of the tumor
- B.
  The microscopic appearance and degree of differentiation of tumor cells
- C.
  The location of the tumor in the body
- D.
  The patient's age at diagnosis
Q 46.
In the TNM staging system, the 'N' stands for:
- A.
  New growth
- B.
  Number of regional lymph nodes invaded by tumor cells
- C.
  Nature of the tumor
- D.
  Nuclear atypia
Q 47.
A T2, N1, M0 designation in the TNM system would be an example of:
- A.
  A stage grouping
- B.
  A specific chemotherapy regimen
- C.
  A radiation dose
- D.
  A genetic mutation
Q 48.
Which of the following is a primary modality of cancer treatment?
- A.
  Surgery
- B.
  Radiation therapy
- C.
  Chemotherapy
- D.
  All of the above
Q 49.
An 'en bloc resection' involves:
- A.
  Removing only the visible tumor
- B.
  Removing the tumor along with a large area of surrounding tissue including lymph nodes
- C.
  Burning the tumor away
- D.
  Freezing the tumor
Q 50.
Pelvic exenteration involves removal of:
- A.
  Only the uterus
- B.
  The tumor, its organ of origin, and all surrounding tissue in the body space
- C.
  A small sample of tissue for diagnosis
- D.
  The tumor with cauterization of margins
Q 51.
Brachytherapy involves:
- A.
  External beam radiation from a distance
- B.
  Implantation of radioactive material directly into or near the tumor
- C.
  Chemotherapy administration
- D.
  Surgical removal of tumor
Q 52.
Teletherapy is also known as:
- A.
  Brachytherapy
- B.
  External beam irradiation
- C.
  Chemotherapy
- D.
  Immunotherapy
Q 53.
Fractionation in radiation therapy refers to:
- A.
  Giving the entire total dose at once
- B.
  Dividing the radiation into small, repeated doses
- C.
  Using only one type of radiation
- D.
  Treating only surface tumors
Q 54.
The SI unit of absorbed radiation dose is the:
- A.
  Rad
- B.
  Gray (Gy)
- C.
  Curie
- D.
  Roentgen
Q 55.
A linear accelerator is used to produce:
- A.
  Radioactive seeds for brachytherapy
- B.
  High-energy x-ray or photon beams for treatment of deep-seated tumors
- C.
  Chemotherapy drugs
- D.
  Monoclonal antibodies
Q 56.
Proton therapy uses subatomic particles that:
- A.
  Scatter widely through tissues
- B.
  Deposit all their energy at a focused point
- C.
  Are always radioactive
- D.
  Cannot be used to treat deep tumors
Q 57.
A radioresistant tumor is one that:
- A.
  Is easily destroyed by radiation therapy
- B.
  Requires large doses of radiation to produce death of the cells
- C.
  Cannot be treated with radiation at all
- D.
  Is most sensitive to chemotherapy
Q 58.
Radiosensitizers are drugs that:
- A.
  Protect normal tissue from radiation damage
- B.
  Increase the sensitivity of tumors to x-rays
- C.
  Block all forms of radiation
- D.
  Replace radiation therapy entirely
Q 59.
Which of the following is an acute side effect of radiation therapy?
- A.
  Fibrosis
- B.
  Secondary tumors
- C.
  Mucositis (inflammation and ulceration of mucous membranes)
- D.
  Infertility
Q 60.
Xerostomia, a side effect of radiation therapy, refers to:
- A.
  Hair loss (alopecia)
- B.
  Dryness of the mouth
- C.
  Bone marrow depression
- D.
  Nausea and vomiting
Q 61.
Alkylating agents are a class of chemotherapy drugs that:
- A.
  Block hormone receptors on cancer cells
- B.
  Cause crosslinks and breaks in DNA that interfere with cell division
- C.
  Inhibit mitosis by blocking specific proteins
- D.
  Block synthesis of DNA components
Q 62.
Cisplatin (Platinol) is an example of which class of chemotherapy drugs?
- A.
  Antimetabolite
- B.
  Alkylating agent
- C.
  Antimitotic
- D.
  Antibiotic
Q 63.
Methotrexate is classified as which type of chemotherapy drug?
- A.
  Alkylating agent
- B.
  Antibiotic
- C.
  Antimetabolite
- D.
  Hormone
Q 64.
Paclitaxel (Taxol) is classified as a(n):
- A.
  Alkylating agent
- B.
  Antimitotic
- C.
  Antimetabolite
- D.
  Hormone
Q 65.
Tamoxifen is classified as which type of cancer drug?
- A.
  Alkylating agent
- B.
  Antibiotic
- C.
  Antimetabolite
- D.
  Hormonal agent
Q 66.
Aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole work by:
- A.
  Blocking estrogen receptors on cancer cells
- B.
  Preventing the conversion of androgen to estrogen
- C.
  Crosslinking DNA strands to stop cell division
- D.
  Inhibiting mitosis by blocking tubulin function
Q 67.
Molecularly targeted therapy differs from traditional chemotherapy primarily in that it:
- A.
  Always causes severe hair loss
- B.
  Attacks specific targets on cancer cells while sparing normal cells
- C.
  Is only delivered intravenously
- D.
  Cannot be administered in any form
Q 68.
Gleevec (imatinib) is an example of:
- A.
  An alkylating agent
- B.
  A molecularly targeted drug used in chronic myeloid leukemia
- C.
  A monoclonal antibody
- D.
  A hormone
Q 69.
Immunotherapy for cancer uses:
- A.
  Radiation energy to destroy cancer cells
- B.
  Chemotherapy drugs to kill cancer cells
- C.
  Immune cells or antibodies to kill tumors
- D.
  Surgical removal of tumors
Q 70.
CAR T-cell therapy involves:
- A.
  Using radioactive materials to destroy T cells
- B.
  Engineering a patient's T cells with chimeric antigen receptors to attack cancer
- C.
  Administering chemotherapy drugs to T cells
- D.
  Surgical removal of T cells from tumors
Q 71.
Herceptin (trastuzumab) is an example of:
- A.
  A traditional chemotherapy drug
- B.
  A monoclonal antibody used in breast cancer
- C.
  A hormone
- D.
  An alkylating agent
Q 72.
Herceptin works against breast cancer by:
- A.
  Damaging the DNA of cancer cells
- B.
  Blocking HER2 growth receptors on breast cancer cells
- C.
  Inhibiting mitosis by blocking tubulin
- D.
  Causing cell death through DNA alkylation
Q 73.
Checkpoint inhibitors are monoclonal antibodies that:
- A.
  Damage cancer cell DNA
- B.
  Block the brake on T cells, allowing them to expand and attack tumors
- C.
  Replace traditional chemotherapy
- D.
  Stimulate tumor cell growth
Q 74.
Phase I clinical trials primarily evaluate:
- A.
  Tumor response rate in a specific cancer
- B.
  Comparison with standard treatment in large populations
- C.
  Safety and safe dosage range in a small group of people (20-80)
- D.
  Long-term side effects in large populations after FDA approval
Q 75.
Phase III clinical trials typically involve:
- A.
  20 to 80 participants
- B.
  100 to 200 participants
- C.
  Hundreds or thousands of participants
- D.
  No participants, only computer simulations
Q 76.
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is given:
- A.
  After surgery as the only treatment
- B.
  Before primary treatment to reduce the size of a tumor
- C.
  Instead of any other treatment
- D.
  Only as a last resort when other treatments fail
Q 77.
Adjuvant chemotherapy is given:
- A.
  Before any surgery
- B.
  After primary therapy to kill any residual cancer cells
- C.
  Only when cancer has spread widely
- D.
  Only in clinical trials
Q 78.
PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a protein marker used primarily to detect:
- A.
  Breast cancer
- B.
  Liver cancer
- C.
  Prostate cancer
- D.
  Ovarian cancer
Q 79.
CA-125 is a protein marker most closely associated with which type of cancer?
- A.
  Prostate cancer
- B.
  Liver cancer
- C.
  Breast cancer
- D.
  Ovarian cancer
Q 80.
A bone marrow biopsy is performed to:
- A.
  Treat bone cancer directly
- B.
  Detect the presence of malignant cells in the bone marrow
- C.
  Replace the patient's bone marrow
- D.
  Surgically remove bone tumors

Answers and explanations are in mode.